Agency Matters – Lesson 5 – Rabbi Michael Abraham
This transcript was produced automatically using artificial intelligence. There may be inaccuracies in the transcribed content and in speaker identification.
🔗 Link to the original lecture
🔗 Link to the transcript on Sofer.AI
Table of Contents
- The law of mili in a bill of divorce and an agent appointing another agent
- Rabbi Akiva Eiger and the dispute over “say [to them], say”
- The meaning of “say [to them], say” as permission or as the content of the appointment
- “Say [to them], say” is invalid and its implications for the first agency
- Writing a bill of divorce, lishmah, and the distinction between agency and the act itself
- Nullifying a bill of divorce, annulling vows, and mili that complete the act
- The Ran, the Maharit, and Beit Meir
- Maharim of Radosh and the difficulty with an agent in betrothal
- The framework for learning agency in terumah and the connection to control
- Terumah can take effect in thought, and what that implies for learning agency
- Acquiring on someone’s behalf in their absence as an alternative to agency
- The proof from agency in terumah and the novel point of Pnei Yehoshua
Summary
General Overview
The text summarizes the law of mili in agency regarding a bill of divorce and sharpens the point that the rule “mili are not transmitted to an agent” raises a difficulty, because in the Talmudic text the problem appears mainly when one agent appoints another, even though it seems that mili should not be subject to agency at all. It presents a fundamental analysis by Rabbi Akiva Eiger, who links the dispute over whether “say [to them], say” is valid or invalid to the question whether mili disqualify only a second agency or even the first one as well. From there, implications are discussed for writing a bill of divorce, nullifying a bill of divorce, annulling vows, and remarks on the views of the Ran and the Maharit. The text then moves to the framework of agency in terumah, shows how the Talmud learns sources for agency in different contexts, and presents the novel point of Pnei Yehoshua that the proof for agency in terumah is needed specifically from the latter clause of the Mishnah in order to rule out an explanation based on acquisition on another’s behalf or mere consent.
The law of mili in a bill of divorce and an agent appointing another agent
In the previous lecture, the law of mili was defined through the case of two witnesses who were asked to write and deliver a bill of divorce and wanted to appoint a scribe in their place. The Talmudic text rules that “mili are not transmitted to an agent,” because this is something abstract and not a “concrete object.” The novelty that “an agent may appoint another agent” is limited by the law of mili, and disputes among the medieval authorities (Rishonim) are discussed regarding what counts as mili, such as an agent of receipt for a bill of divorce and an agent of delivery and receipt in betrothal. The text points to a difficulty: if mili are not subject to agency at all, why does the problem arise only with the second agent and not already with the first appointment.
Rabbi Akiva Eiger and the dispute over “say [to them], say”
Rabbi Akiva Eiger ties the dispute over whether omer imru is valid or invalid to the understanding of the root of the disqualification of mili. According to the view that omer imru is valid, mili allow a first agency but are not transmitted for the purpose of “an agent appointing an agent,” and therefore the first agent has no power to pass on his agency when what is being transmitted is merely mili. The text explains that according to this, without omer imru the witnesses received power to write and are trying to transfer that power to the scribe, whereas in omer imru the witnesses did not receive power to write but rather power to speak to the scribe in the husband’s name, and therefore the scribe is considered the husband’s agent rather than the witnesses’ second agent.
The meaning of “say [to them], say” as permission or as the content of the appointment
The text notes that among the medieval authorities (Rishonim) there is a possibility that omer imru means permission to appoint a scribe, even though the witnesses were appointed to write. But according to Rabbi Akiva Eiger, mere “permission” does not help, because it is still a transfer of the power of mili to a second agent. According to his analysis, either the interpretive re-reading of omer imru changes the whole case so that the original content was the appointment of the witnesses to appoint a scribe, or else the husband appoints them to two parallel “channels of agency” of their choosing: either they write themselves, or they tell a scribe to write in his name. The text presents this as an explanation that avoids a situation in which the witnesses transfer the power of writing they received to a second agent.
“Say [to them], say” is invalid and its implications for the first agency
According to the view that omer imru is invalid, Rabbi Akiva Eiger rules that one cannot create agency for mili even in the first agency, and therefore even when the scribe was supposed to be considered the husband’s agent, that has no validity. The text sharpens the point that if mili already disqualify the first agency, the problem begins already with appointing the witnesses themselves as agents to speak to the scribe, and so the scribe cannot be appointed as the husband’s agent through an agency that does not exist.
Writing a bill of divorce, lishmah, and the distinction between agency and the act itself
The text examines how it can be that in practice the husband tells a scribe to write a bill of divorce and that works, even though according to the view that omer imru is invalid there is no agency for mili even for a first agent. The possibility that writing is not mili is rejected, because then it is unclear why, without omer imru, appointing witnesses to write and pass it on further would not work. So a conclusion is suggested that telling a scribe to write is indeed mili, but it does not require the status of agency. The text attributes to the medieval authorities (Rishonim), and apparently especially to Nachmanides, the idea that telling the scribe to write belongs to the law of lishmah and not to appointing an agent, and therefore the husband’s will and instruction are enough for the writing to be for its proper sake even without the scribe being defined as his agent.
Nullifying a bill of divorce, annulling vows, and mili that complete the act
Rabbi Akiva Eiger asks how it can be possible to nullify a bill of divorce through an agent if nullification is mili, and answers that mili is said when the speech is not the “completion of an act” but rather leads to another act, such as instructing a scribe, which still does not finish the process. He rules that nullifying a bill of divorce counts as an act for this purpose, because the speech itself completes the matter and creates an immediate legal result. He brings proof from the dispute between Rabbi Yoshiya and Rabbi Yonatan about annulling a wife’s vows through an agent, which in his view shows that speech that finishes the matter and creates a result is not rejected as mili.
The Ran, the Maharit, and Beit Meir
The text quotes the Ran in the first chapter of tractate Pesachim, who wrote that nullifying leaven through ownerless declaration cannot be done by an agent, and raises a difficulty from Rabbi Akiva Eiger’s words, since in such speech there is a completion of the matter and therefore it should not be mili. It is also brought that Beit Meir cited the Ran and asked this question, and also cited the Maharit, who said that one cannot consecrate property through an agent because of mili, and contradicted that from annulling vows and from nullifying a bill of divorce through an agent. The text raises the possibility that the prohibition of agency in ownerless declaration and consecration is not necessarily because of mili, but rather because there is no need for an agent where the person can perform the verbal act himself without representation.
Maharim of Radosh and the difficulty with an agent in betrothal
The view of Maharim of Radosh is brought from a responsum cited in Beit Shmuel, that in betrothal even by document there is no rule that “an agent becomes an agent,” because the matter depends on the woman’s consent and therefore the act is not in the agent’s hands to complete. The text asks that according to Rabbi Akiva Eiger’s conclusion, according to the view that omer imru is invalid and there is no agency for mili even in the first agent, it would come out according to Maharim of Radosh that an agent in betrothal could not exist at all, even though “a man betroths by himself and by his agent” is explicit. The text suggests a distinction between two kinds of mili: mili that are merely “words” and are not fit for agency even in the first stage, versus mili of dependence on another party’s consent, where the problem is only in transferring to a second agent.
The framework for learning agency in terumah and the connection to control
The text moves to agency in terumah and first introduces the principle in the name of Rabbi Shimon Shkop that agency requires full control of the sender over the act, and therefore “what cannot be done conditionally cannot be done through agency” in halitzah reflects a lack of full control. It brings the tzrikhta in the Talmudic text: agency in betrothal is learned from divorce through the analogy “and she leaves and becomes,” despite the refutation “for divorce can take place even against her will,” and it explains that this refutation is connected to the husband’s full control in divorce as opposed to dependence in betrothal on the woman’s consent. Regarding terumah, the Talmudic text rejects learning from divorce because divorce is secular and terumah is sacred, and brings the source “so shall you also separate” to include an agent, and the text connects this to the point that in sacred matters a person’s control is not absolute.
Terumah can take effect in thought, and what that implies for learning agency
The Talmudic text rejects learning divorce and betrothal from terumah because “it exists in thought,” and the text explains that thought teaches a stronger kind of control and therefore it is not similar to places that require speech and action. The text quotes Rashi’s explanation of the amounts of terumah through a “generous eye” and a “stingy eye,” and comments that his wording may fit with an approach according to which the measures of one-fortieth, one-fiftieth, and one-sixtieth are Torah-level and not only rabbinic, and refers to an article he sent about that without elaborating here.
Acquiring on someone’s behalf in their absence as an alternative to agency
The text introduces the law of acquiring on someone’s behalf from the Talmudic text on “one prince, one prince,” and presents that the Talmudic text rejects this as a source for agency because minors are not subject to agency, and therefore attributes the verse to the law of acquisition on behalf of another. It brings the Talmudic question that dividing the Land is not an absolute benefit because people have different preferences, and concludes that the passage arrives at the law of a guardian for orphans, “to incur a liability for the sake of a benefit,” learned from “one prince.” The point needed for what follows is that acquisition on another’s behalf is not identical to agency, and at least on the plain level it has a separate mechanism.
The proof from agency in terumah and the novel point of Pnei Yehoshua
The Talmudic text brings a Mishnah in Terumot: “One who says to his agent, ‘Go separate terumah,’” and treats this as a source for agency. The text asks whether agency is needed at all for terumah to take effect, or whether consent alone is enough, or at least acquisition on another’s behalf, because the very separation fixes the untithed produce even before it is given to the priest. Pnei Yehoshua explains that the Talmudic text had to bring also the latter clause, “If he reduced by ten or added ten, his terumah is terumah,” because from the first clause alone one could have explained that the case is acquisition on another’s behalf after he revealed that he is not particular, whereas the latter clause proves action by virtue of agency even where there is an element of liability or a deviation from the owner’s presumed intent. The text concludes by stating that acquisition on another’s behalf, an agent for a transgression, agency in commandments, and the continuation of agency in terumah will still be discussed later.
Full Transcript
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] In the previous lecture we saw the law of mili. We saw the law of mili, and I’ll remind you that it came up when the Talmudic text discussed someone who told two witnesses to write him a bill of divorce, to write and deliver it, and they wanted to appoint a scribe to write in their place. And then the Talmudic text says that mili are not transmitted to an agent. They can’t appoint the scribe to write, because this is something abstract, too amorphous. We saw different definitions of the concept of mili: something unfinished, something without a concrete object, all kinds of things like that, and then you can’t transfer it, meaning you can’t appoint the scribe to write.
This came up in the context of the Talmudic text’s novelty in the baraita that an agent may appoint another agent, and the problem there is basically the question what counts as mili and what doesn’t count as mili, but the law of mili can limit that novelty. Meaning, even if we say that an agent can appoint another agent, that’s only in real agency, not in mili. And then there are disputes among the medieval authorities (Rishonim) about what counts as mili: an agent of receipt in a bill of divorce, an agent of delivery and receipt in betrothal, we saw different opinions there among the medieval authorities (Rishonim).
So I want to touch a bit on the topic of mili, where the main source people usually deal with is Rabbi Akiva Eiger. I pointed you to him in the preparation sheet. He basically exhausts the fundamental discussion of this question of mili, so I want to go through him. After that we’ll move on to agency in terumah.
The basic point is that from the wording of this rule it sounds like mili are not… that is, of course I didn’t mention that in “say [to them], say” there’s a dispute. Rabbi Yosei says that mili are not transmitted to an agent; there’s a dispute among the Amoraim in Rabbi Yosei’s view whether in a case of “say [to them], say” it does work. Fine, that’s just a summary of what we saw.
From the wording of the rule itself, where it says that mili are not transmitted to an agent, it sounds simply like the concept of agency is not defined with respect to mili. There is no agency for mili. Agency has to be about something tangible, real, complete — all the definitions we talked about. But from the cases where we see the Talmudic text discussing the law of mili, it always comes up in the context of one agent appointing a second agent, right? For example, like the two witnesses who want to appoint a scribe to write the bill of divorce in their name. And the question is why the Talmudic text assumes that the problem arises only with the second agent. The wording says that mili are not transmitted to an agent — meaning the concept of mili just isn’t subject to agency at all. So why does this come up only with the second agent? Why does the first agent work? If agency to write a bill of divorce is mili, then the first agent shouldn’t work either. How can you appoint a scribe to write a bill of divorce as a first agent at all? Why does the problem arise only when I tell witnesses to write and they appoint the scribe as their agent? Okay, if mili is not something to which agency applies at all, then it should already have appeared with the first agent.
And that’s basically what Rabbi Akiva Eiger deals with. He says as follows: “At first glance one can discuss, why does it work through an agent, since we hold that mili are not transmitted?” And according to several halakhic decisors, like Rabbi Yosei, even “say [to them], say” is invalid. “And it seems that the essence of the dispute whether ‘say [to them], say’ is valid or not, they disagree about this.”
What’s the dispute whether “say [to them], say” is valid or not, even on the side that mili are not transmitted to an agent, right? In Rabbi Yosei’s opinion. So what is the dispute? He claims that the dispute whether “say [to them], say” is valid depends on the question of how I understand the disqualification of mili. What is the basis of the disqualification of mili? And the implication is for “say [to them], say.” How does that work?
It works like this: according to the one who says “say [to them], say” is valid, the main rule that mili are not transmitted to an agent means that the first agent has no power to pass on his power under the rule that an agent appoints an agent, if what he is passing to the second is not an act but merely mili. Therefore, without “say [to them], say” to the scribe, and he just says to him “write,” so that he becomes the husband’s agent, he has no power to go back and pass on the power of his agency to tell another “write,” since he is passing only mere mili. But one agency can exist through mili; that is, the husband can appoint an agent for mili. And we say that mili done by an agent are like the words of the owner himself. And therefore “say [to them], say”…
Wait, let me explain what he’s saying. He starts with the view that “say [to them], say” is valid. “Say [to them], say” being valid means that if you don’t say “say [to them], say” — if you appointed them to write, and they appoint someone else to write in their place — then it doesn’t work. But if it’s “say [to them], say,” then it does. Why? Because when you don’t say “say [to them], say,” the first one is an agent regarding the mili, but he can’t appoint a second agent. The problem in appointing the agent exists only when you come to appoint the second one. But one agent to act on mili is possible. The whole problem is only that the second one can’t receive the first agent’s power if it’s a case of mili. Right?
And therefore, if you appoint one agent for mili, then what that agent does is like what the owner himself did, because in principle there is agency for mili. It’s only that it can’t be handed over to a second agent. So why is “say [to them], say” valid? Up to this point it’s fine, but why is “say [to them], say” valid? That’s the important point.
He says: therefore “say [to them], say” is valid, because the husband makes him an agent for this matter — for the speech, the instruction to the scribe, “write,” so that the agent will do so on his behalf. And when the agent says to the scribe “write,” he is not passing his own power and not doing so under the rule that an agent appoints an agent; rather, he is acting as the sender’s agent, and for that very thing he is an agent to say to the scribe “write” in place of the husband.
What he means is: when I told them “say [to them], say,” basically they were not appointed to write the bill of divorce at all. They were appointed to appoint a scribe. That’s the content of their appointment. Okay? So now when they come to the scribe and appoint him, they are not transferring to him the power they received from the sender. They didn’t receive from the sender the power to write. Their agency was not to write. Their agency was to appoint a scribe who would write. Right?
So now, when I appointed them to appoint a scribe, that’s mili in every respect. But with a first agent there’s no problem of mili. So they became agents to appoint a scribe to write. Why is the scribe’s agency effective if he said to them “say [to them], say”? Because when they come and appoint the agent, he’s a first agent, not a second. He’s not their agent; he’s the owner’s agent. Since their own agency was not… if their agency had been to write, then they would be transferring the power to write to the second agent. Then he receives that power from them. That cannot be done. And that’s what happens when he did not say “say [to them], say.” Because if he didn’t say “say [to them], say,” then he told them: you yourselves write. And they are trying to take the power they got to write and transfer it to the second agent. That can’t be done. With mili, you can’t transfer your power to a second agent. But in “say [to them], say,” why is it valid? Because in “say [to them], say,” they never got the power to write in the first place. That’s not what they are passing on to the second. They are appointing him — what is the content of their agency? To appoint a scribe to write. That’s the content of the agency.
So when they appoint the scribe, it’s as if the sender is appointing him, because there is agency for mili with the first agent. And the second agent is actually a first agent — not a second — he is the owner’s agent. Only his appointment is being done by these witnesses in a case of “say [to them], say.” They didn’t transfer to him the power they got from the owner. They simply appointed him in the owner’s name.
So in no situation is there any transfer of mili from the first agent to the second agent here. The first agent did indeed receive mili, and the second agent too may perhaps be an agent for mili, but he is an agent for the owner’s mili, not the first agent’s. Therefore there is no problem, because you can make one agent for mili. It’s only impossible to transfer the power of mili to a second agent. That’s the position of the one who says “say [to them], say” is valid. Okay? You understand why without “say [to them], say” it doesn’t work, because then it’s a transfer of power, and why with “say [to them], say” there’s no problem. Okay?
A side remark: we saw in the Talmudic text that the Talmudic text says that if he, at least according to one opinion, gave them permission to appoint, then it’s fine. There’s a debate there, with “say [to them], say,” what exactly that means. Does “say [to them], say” mean that this is the content of their agency? Or does “say [to them], say” mean that he basically told them: write a bill of divorce and give it to my wife, and besides that he says: you can also appoint another scribe if you want. Right? There are medieval authorities (Rishonim) — I don’t remember now, maybe we didn’t get to this in the lecture, or maybe it appeared in the summary I sent — it’s possible I don’t remember whether we got to this in the lecture. So it’s a dispute. You see among the medieval authorities (Rishonim) that some understood it this way and some that way. Some understood “say [to them], say” to mean he gives them permission to appoint. They were appointed to write, not to appoint. He says, if you want to appoint, fine by me, no problem.
Now, how do we understand this? Usually we understand that if he gave them permission, then that takes care of the problem of mili, so there’s no mili problem. Okay? That’s how people understand the plain reading of the Talmudic text. According to Rabbi Akiva Eiger, that’s not so. According to Rabbi Akiva Eiger, it won’t help that he gave them permission, because they are still passing their power on to a second agent.
According to Rabbi Akiva Eiger, “say [to them], say” has to mean… there are two possibilities. Either it really isn’t a case where he gave them permission to appoint a scribe, but rather he appointed them to appoint a scribe. That’s their appointment. He didn’t tell them, “write a bill of divorce.” Okay? Meaning, when the Talmudic text says we reinterpret it as “say [to them], say,” it changes the whole picture, because the case originally said “write a bill of divorce and give it to my wife.” That was the original wording of the appointment. Now we reinterpret it and back away from that. We say instead: no, no, what he meant was that he appointed them to appoint a scribe to write. A bit forced.
Another possibility is: no, really he appointed them to write, and he also gave them permission to appoint. But not that the permission exempts the problem of mili; rather, the permission means you are appointed to two types of agency, to choose from. One agency is: write the bill of divorce yourselves, in which case they themselves are the scribes — that’s mili of a first agent, right? A second possibility: if you want, I appoint you to tell a scribe to write in my name. That’s a parallel track. Meaning: I appointed you to two agencies; you choose which one you want. But these are two agencies. It’s not an agency to write a bill of divorce with permission to pass that on to the scribe. No, that can’t work according to Rabbi Akiva Eiger. His permission won’t help. It’s still mili, still mili.
What one can understand here, as I said before, is one of two options. Either he basically told them — he didn’t tell them to write the bill of divorce, but what he really told them was: tell so-and-so to write. That’s not permission; that was the content of the appointment. Second possibility: if we’re talking about permission — and according to some of the medieval authorities (Rishonim), it is permission — then permission means I am also authorizing you to be agents to appoint him. And then you are not agents to write. You choose which track of agency that I appointed you to you are acting in. If you act on the track where you yourselves are the scribes and you want to delegate that power to the scribe, there’s no such thing — impossible. When I gave you permission to appoint a scribe, it means I told you: you are appointed to two types of agency, choose which one. Either you are the scribes, or you tell so-and-so to write in my name — I appoint him to write. Okay?
That’s one understanding, according to the view that “say [to them], say” is valid. But according to the one who holds that “say [to them], say” is invalid, he holds that even a first agency does not take hold in mili, and there is no power to appoint an agent for mere mili. Someone who says “say [to them], say” is invalid is really claiming that mili doesn’t help even with the first agent, not only with the second agent. Why? Because what happens in “say [to them], say”? What was the solution? Why was “say [to them], say” valid according to the previous approach? Because in “say [to them], say” the scribe is a first agent, not a second. Right? It’s not that the agents gave their power to the scribe. The agents are not agents to write; they are agents to appoint the scribe. When they appoint the scribe, they appoint him in the sender’s name. And now the scribe is the sender’s agent, a first agent. And with a first agent there is no problem of mili. So why is “say [to them], say” invalid according to the view that invalidates it? Why can’t that work? Because according to that view, even that can’t be done, since mili doesn’t help even with a first agent. So now you see why it depends on the law of “say [to them], say.”
The whole reason “say [to them], say” was okay was that in “say [to them], say,” the second agent becomes a first agent, not a second. So whoever says “say [to them], say” is valid says: fine, with a first agent there is no problem of mili, only with a second. So in “say [to them], say” he’s a first agent, not a second, so there’s no problem of mili, right? Whoever says “say [to them], say” is invalid says: the second agent in “say [to them], say” is indeed the husband’s agent, a first agent, but even that is invalid in his view, because “say [to them], say” is invalid. That means that mili cannot be done even through a first agent, not only through a second.
We’ll get to it in a second — that’s the obvious question there. So the dispute about “say [to them], say,” according to Rabbi Akiva Eiger’s analysis, is basically a dispute about whether a first agent for mili is possible or not. Okay? That’s really the dispute.
And that’s what he says: “But the one who holds that ‘say [to them], say’ is invalid holds that even one agency does not take hold in mili, and there is no power to appoint an agent for mere mili. And therefore it is impossible for the husband to command the scribe to write through an agent, because when the agent says to the scribe ‘write,’ it is not considered as though the husband himself said it…”
Here he goes one step further than what I just said. What did I tell you before? In “say [to them], say,” the second agent is the husband’s agent. He is not a second agent, he’s a first agent, and therefore it works. So therefore, in the view that “say [to them], say” is invalid, even though he is a first agent, it still won’t work. So even “say [to them], say” won’t work.
And notice: if really, according to the view that “say [to them], say” is invalid, even a first agent cannot be appointed through mili, then the disqualification is in the first agent, not the second. Because the first agent, when I told him “say,” I gave him mili. And already with the first agent there is no agency for mili. I had attached everything to the second agent, right? That in “say [to them], say,” the second agent is really the first. And then the question is whether there is a problem of mili with a first agent or not. That is the dispute over “say [to them], say,” and that has consequences.
That’s true at the first stage. But there’s a further consequence. Once I arrive at the conclusion that according to the one who says “say [to them], say” is invalid, an agent for mili — even a first agent — cannot be an agent for mili, then the problem is not really with the second agent at all, but with the first. Because the first one, who was appointed to appoint the second one, even in “say [to them], say,” was appointed to appoint the second — and that is agency for mili. He was appointed to appoint; what does appointing mean? To speak. That’s mili, right? So he says the first one is not an agent. So if the first one is not an agent, then when he appoints the second, it’s not that the second is the owner’s first agent, only the problem is that it’s mili. The second one is not the owner’s agent at all, because he wasn’t appointed by the owner. Because the one who appointed him was not the owner’s agent. The result is the same, but the explanation is that the problem lies with the first agent, not the second. Or at least also with the first, and then the second is no longer relevant. And even if he were appointed, that too would be mili. But practically speaking, he also was not appointed, because the one who appointed him was himself an agent for mili, and that’s no agent at all. So the husband did not appoint him in the first place. He was appointed by irrelevant people. Okay?
What I said before is true, but that’s only the first step. The next step, once I reach the conclusion that mili does not work even with a first agency, is that the problem doesn’t really lie with the second agent at all; it already starts with the first. The first agent, who was appointed in “say [to them], say” to appoint the second, is already not an agent. Not the second one.
Now the question is: then how does the scribe’s agency work? If I now — I am the husband — go straight to the scribe and say to him: write a bill of divorce for my wife. That certainly is good; that’s how it’s done, right? That’s how one writes a bill of divorce. So if mili doesn’t work already with the first agent, then that too should not work. That was always the whole idea when I said that from the Talmudic text it always seems that the problem with mili is with the second agent, because if I tell the scribe to write, that certainly works. The whole problem is only when the witnesses want to appoint a scribe. But now suddenly we discover that the problem, according to Rabbi Akiva Eiger’s second side — according to the view that “say [to them], say” is invalid — lies with the first agent. Right? If that’s so, then how can one appoint a scribe at all?
There are two ways to understand this. We’ll see the difference shortly. One possibility is that telling a scribe to write is not mili. He is doing an act, the scribe is, and that’s not mili. This depends, of course, on the Kedushat Mordechai and everything we discussed in the previous lecture, because it’s not the completion of the act. If it’s not the completion of the act, then it is mili. But practically there is an action here on a specific object, and the scribe himself is writing a bill of divorce. So there is room to say that such a thing is not called mili. Agency to appoint a scribe may be mili. And therefore the first agent received an agency of mili, because his agency is to appoint the second agent. Okay? But the second agent, the scribe himself — that is not mili.
So why is “say [to them], say” invalid? Because the first agent is not an agent. Now the problem is only with the first agent. Before, I said the problem was with the second, but after the analysis it comes out that there’s already a problem with the first. You could say: no, no, the problem is only with the first. If the first one could appoint, appointing a scribe to write is not mili. The problem is with the first, because the first was appointed for an act that is mili — to appoint a scribe to write.
This direction is a bit difficult, because then what happens without “say [to them], say”? He appointed them to write, right? Now they go and appoint another agent to write. If I say that the problem of mili is with the first agent, not the second, but agency to write is not mili, and therefore one can appoint a scribe, then I could also appoint them, right? They are scribes too. Okay? So why can’t they appoint someone else? The second agency shouldn’t be a problem either, since it isn’t mili. If it is mili, then… How does a difference arise, how is there a difference between “say [to them], say,” which is valid, and not saying it, which is invalid?
So if we say, according to the view that “say [to them], say” is invalid, why is it invalid? Because mili cannot be transmitted even to a first agent, right? Therefore the first one is not an agent. But the scribe himself isn’t mili, and that’s why I can appoint him if I appoint him directly. But if so, then wait — there is no difference between “say [to them], say” and not saying it. So in the case without “say [to them], say,” the first one is an agent because he got an agency to write a bill of divorce, and that’s not mili, right? So what’s the problem if he transfers it to a second agent? The problem arises precisely without “say [to them], say.” Why is it invalid there? There it should have been valid. Okay?
Therefore it’s not plausible to say that telling an agent to write is not mili. Apparently telling an agent to write is indeed mili. So the question returns: then why does telling a scribe to write in an ordinary bill of divorce work at all? Either way, what are you saying to me — that it isn’t mili? If it isn’t mili, then what’s the problem without “say [to them], say”? Without “say [to them], say,” I appoint the two witnesses to write — that’s not agency for mili — so that works, and they appoint a second agent, which also isn’t agency for mili; they can transfer it to a second agent because it isn’t mili. So what’s the problem? And if you tell me that telling the scribe to write is mili, it is mili, then the problem exists both with the first agent and with the second; in both there is a problem. But then it’s not clear how I can tell a scribe to write, because after all there is a problem even with the first agent in mili.
So it is more plausible to say in such a case that when I appoint the scribe to write, he is not really my agent; no appointment of an agent is needed. In other words, yes — he is not my agent. Meaning, telling the scribe to write is indeed mili; that’s what I want to say. In other words, yes, telling the scribe to write is indeed mili. So why does it help when the husband, the woman’s husband, says to the scribe to write? Not because of agency — after all, mili doesn’t work even for a first agent — but because the scribe does not have to be my agent.
All that is needed is that I express my will that the bill of divorce be written. There are medieval authorities (Rishonim) — Nachmanides, I think, writes — that telling the scribe to write is by the law of lishmah altogether; it is not appointing an agent. The scribe has to write “and he shall write for her” for its proper sake, for the sake of the woman being divorced. How can you write for the sake of the woman being divorced? I am her husband, so I need to tell you: write the bill of divorce to divorce my wife. And that is part of the laws of lishmah; it is not an appointment of agency.
If that’s so, then it basically means the following: appointing the scribe is not agency at all. So when I appoint the two witnesses to write, there is no problem at all that they write. Why? Not because it isn’t mili — it is agency regarding mili to write — but because they do not have to be agents. Okay? To deliver the bill of divorce, you do need agency, but for that they are agents, no problem, that isn’t mili. Fine?
What happens when they come to appoint a scribe — not to write themselves, but to appoint a scribe? What happens is that since they are not agents — because telling someone to write is mili — if they themselves were writing, I wouldn’t care, because they don’t need to be agents. But if they appoint the second scribe without being agents, how are they appointing him? They would need to be agents so that I am considered the one who appointed him. By the law of lishmah, they have to be agents. Because otherwise I did not appoint him, and then there is a deficiency in lishmah. Okay? Therefore a problem arises.
And then it comes out that the problem, unlike what I said earlier, is only with the first agent, not also with the first. Because the second agent — really, when the witnesses appoint the scribe, they appoint him to write, which is mili, okay? But the scribe is not an agent, so I don’t care that it’s mili. Therefore, if they were agents, no problem would arise with their saying to the second person, because the second person doesn’t need to be an agent; he’s a scribe. Okay? The problem that arises here is because they are not agents. If they are not my agents, then what good is it that they tell him to write? I have to tell him to write. If they are not my agents, then I didn’t say it.
Therefore the simpler explanation in this approach of Rabbi Akiva Eiger, according to the conception that “say [to them], say” is invalid, is that telling the scribe to write is also mili. And mili does not work already with the first agent, not only with the second. So why does telling the scribe to write still work? Because there is no need for agency status. And what happens when he didn’t tell them “say [to them], say”? If he didn’t tell them “say [to them], say,” then true, the scribe doesn’t need to be an agent, but they themselves do need to be agents in order to appoint him in my name — and they are not agents, because they received an agency of mili. Writing is agency for mili. Therefore there is no difference between “say [to them], say” and not saying it. In both cases the first agents are not agents. Okay.
Rabbi Akiva Eiger says as follows: “If so, then nullifying the bill of divorce is mere mili, so how can one nullify it through an agent?” You can send an agent to nullify the bill of divorce. Nullifying the bill of divorce is mili. What are you doing? You’re not giving him a bill of divorce. You tell him: go nullify the bill of divorce. Tell them that the bill of divorce is nullified. You send him to say something, to perform an act with his mouth. So that’s mili. So how can one nullify through an agent according to the second conception — that the problem with mili isn’t with the second agent, it’s already with the first?
According to the first conception there’s no problem, because an agent to nullify the bill of divorce is like “say [to them], say,” right? He tells the first agent: say to so-and-so that the bill of divorce is nullified. Okay, so that’s fine because the first agent is an agent; he can’t pass the power to someone else, but he isn’t passing anything. He’s just telling the second person that the bill of divorce is nullified, that’s all. But if the problem of mili is already with the first agent, according to the view that “say [to them], say” is invalid, then how can you send an agent to nullify a bill of divorce?
Rabbi Akiva Eiger says: “One must say that specifically the instruction ‘write’ to the scribe, where the mili are not the completion of the act, but rather through this the scribe will write — that is what is called mili.” When you send an agent to appoint a scribe, that agency is an agency of mili. Why? Because when the scribe writes, that is not the completion of the act; it’s only the writing of the bill of divorce, and it still has to be given. The act is still lacking completion. Okay.
But where everything is completed through the speech itself, such as nullifying the bill of divorce, where by the nullification the whole matter is completed — that is considered like an act. You send an agent to nullify the bill of divorce, and the way the agent acts is by speech. Right? He just speaks when he nullifies the bill of divorce. But those words have a result. The result is that the bill of divorce is nullified. And this speech — the very performance of the task of this agent — creates a legal result; the bill of divorce is nullified. Such a thing is not mili.
If I send an agent to appoint a scribe to write, that is mili. Why? Because the writing by the scribe does not complete the matter. Okay. So when I send an agent to appoint a scribe to write, I am really sending him for mili, because it is speech that does not complete the matter. But in the case of an agent to nullify a bill of divorce, it is indeed speech, but speech that completes the matter, and therefore it is not mili.
And the proof of this, says Rabbi Akiva Eiger, is from the fact that Rabbi Yoshiya and Rabbi Yonatan disagree whether a man can annul his wife’s vows through an agent — and why not say simply that it is mili? Rather, it must be that in such a case agency does work. A man can annul his wife’s vows through an agent — that is a dispute between Rabbi Yoshiya and Rabbi Yonatan in tractate Bava Metzia 96; I think I mentioned this in the first lecture, it’s a dispute among Tannaim. Now, one opinion says yes and one says no, but nobody raises the issue that this is mili. You could say they are disputing the law of mili. But the Talmudic text doesn’t say that; it says they are disputing the rule that a person’s agent is like the person himself. The difficulty of mili doesn’t come up there in the Talmudic text. Why not? After all, he is sending an agent to annul his wife’s vows. The agent is really supposed to speak, to annul the vow, just like nullifying a bill of divorce. What do you see? That since when the agent annuls the vow, the vow is annulled — meaning the legal result takes effect through the agent’s speech — then such a thing is not called mili. Once the words create a legal reality, that’s not mili. The same is true for an agent to nullify a bill of divorce, and not the same for an agent to appoint a scribe.
So why, when I tell a scribe directly to write, is that good? After all, that doesn’t complete the matter, it’s mili, and mili is a problem already with the first agent. So why is it possible to tell a scribe to write? And there’s no need for him to be my agent? You have to say it this way: because there is no need at all for him to be my agent. All that’s needed under the law of lishmah is that I tell him: write the bill of divorce for my wife — but that is not the appointment of agency. Fine? You have to say that.
“And I was perplexed by the Ran in the first chapter of tractate Pesachim, who wrote that nullification of leaven, which is by way of ownerless declaration, cannot be done through an agent, for if he says to his fellow, ‘Declare my property ownerless,’ it means nothing. I did not understand.” How is it obvious to the Ran that ownerless declaration does not work through an agent? Why not? Why can’t I send an agent to declare my property ownerless? “And I thought to say that it is by the rule that mili are not transmitted.” Yes, it’s because of mili: you can’t send an agent to say words to make your property ownerless.
But in truth, we clarified from our topic that one can nullify through an agent, and it was also proven from annulling vows that in such a case agency works. And there too, when the agent finishes speaking, the legal result takes effect, right? The property is now ownerless. And if that speech is the completion of the act, then it is not mili. So why does the Ran write that an agent for nullifying leaven does not help — by ownerless declaration, yes? Why does it not help? It cannot be because of mili.
“Afterward I found in the book Beit Meir that he brought the aforementioned words of the Ran and remained with the question. For he also brought the words of the Maharit, that one cannot consecrate through an agent because it is mili, and he contradicted this from the law of annulling vows through an agent. And in truth, also from our topic, from nullifying a bill of divorce through an agent, the words of the Maharit are contradicted.”
Okay, so the Maharit and the Ran really are saying things that go against what Rabbi Akiva Eiger writes here. They can, of course, go according to the view that “say [to them], say” is valid. Because if “say [to them], say” is valid, then only with a second agent is there a problem of mili; with a first agent there is no problem of mili. Right? This whole discussion here is according to the view that “say [to them], say” is invalid. If “say [to them], say” is invalid, that means the problem of mili already applies to the first agent. Okay? But according to the view that “say [to them], say” is valid, there is agency for mili, only you can’t transfer it to a second agent. So then there’s no problem why one can send an agent to nullify a bill of divorce or to declare property ownerless or things like that. No, wait, sorry, the opposite. The opposite. It’s obvious that one can… no, that would still be a problem. That won’t help.
[Speaker C] That you can’t come… he isn’t afraid of the agent’s power.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] I didn’t understand — what harm?
[Speaker C] Suppose, just like with leaven, if let’s say he declares all the property ownerless. So he doesn’t want to give that agency.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] No, he’s declaring the leaven ownerless. But the leaven is by the law of ownerless declaration.
[Speaker C] Yes, but if they don’t want to beautify the power—these sages who determine the Jewish law don’t want to allow a person to appoint an agent and then be able to change his mind afterward; there will be problems and all that. So no—do it yourself.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] Why, in other agency cases, do they allow it? He may change his mind, he may not… In agency for betrothal he can even change his mind, after all, or in agency for divorce he can change his mind, and that creates crazy problems. The rabbis even uprooted the betrothal because of all the problems created when you cancel the agent not in his presence. There are terrible problems, and nobody cancelled agency because of that.
[Speaker C] But there he put the bill of divorce in his hand.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] He put the bill of divorce in his hand, and now he left. Now I cancel the bill of divorce. I cancel it.
[Speaker C] That’s something else. But when we were talking about ownerlessness, to tell someone, “Go now and declare my property ownerless”—he can retract.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] There too he can retract. What difference does it make that he put the bill of divorce in his hand? What kind of proof is that? He said it in front of two witnesses. It’s not a question of proof. The question is what actually happened, not whether I have proof of it. The problem isn’t in the laws of evidence. The problem is what happened. About that they’re not concerned. About that they’re not concerned. He could also say, “I didn’t understand what you said. You gave me a bill of divorce, I thought I was supposed to make a kite out of it.” That’s not how it works. Meaning, maybe on the rabbinic level sometimes they make an enactment, but here it doesn’t work like that; this is by Torah law. So the Ran and the Maharit really are difficult according to Rabbi Akiva Eiger. It really is difficult why an agent cannot help in declaring property ownerless. To declare ownerless, to declare ownerless—not to cancel the bill of divorce. To declare ownerless, to declare ownerless—or to cancel? Yes. No, to cancel the bill of divorce—that does work, sorry. To declare ownerless. By the way, I had something here,
[Speaker C] Declaring something ownerless is too dangerous a thing. They don’t allow it.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] Wait. According to the one who says “say to others,” wait—according to the one who says “say to others,” then writing a bill of divorce can be mere words. Agency for writing a bill of divorce is mere words. Right? But according to the one who says that “say to others” is invalid, we would have had to conclude that the writing of the bill of divorce itself—wait, the writing itself—is mere words. Right? The writing itself is mere words. And the reason I can tell the scribe to write is because agency isn’t needed. But according to the one who says “say to others” is valid, then the writing of the bill of divorce may not be mere words.
[Speaker E] The first agent and second agent—right, not right—for writing a bill of divorce. You said the first and second agent could apply even if it’s “say to others.” Right. The first agent yes and the second not, if he told him—
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] That’s first agent or second agent. Right. Yes, right, so from the standpoint that this is the first agent it would be problematic—not because writing a bill of divorce is mere words. Yes, so it comes out problematic according to all views. What I thought here maybe is: what does it mean to call someone an agent to declare property ownerless? That’s very strange—an agent to declare ownerlessness. Declare it ownerless yourself—what? Why do you need an agent? Say my money is in Australia—do I need someone in Australia to be my agent to declare it ownerless? I declare it ownerless from here. “My property in that house in Australia, in Melbourne, is null like the dust of the earth.” Ownerless. Why do you need the appointment of an agent? And it could be that what the Ran means has nothing at all to do with the laws of mere words; rather, you cannot appoint an agent to declare your property ownerless because there is simply no point to it. It’s monkey-business, meaning it’s irrelevant. And where no agent is needed, there is no halakhic definition of an agent. An agent is defined only where you need him. Where there is no need whatsoever for an agent, why appoint one? Why should the Torah define the concept of agency there at all?
[Speaker C] No, if you just said you declared it ownerless and nobody knows about it…
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] No, that’s a different question—whether you need to declare ownerlessness in front of two people or not. Let’s say I declared it ownerless in front of two people. It doesn’t matter. I can declare ownerlessness in front of two people regarding my property located in Australia. There’s no… the agent has nothing I don’t have. Maybe in some very remote situation, if I’m on a deserted island, then I call someone else who is in a place where there are two other people who can serve as witnesses, so he should declare it ownerless in the name of those two witnesses on my behalf. Fine. So on the phone I can declare it ownerless before two listeners who will be witnesses. It’s not… in short, it could be that what the Ran means is something much more prosaic, not connected at all to the laws of mere words. Rather, simply with declaring ownerlessness—and likewise with consecrating property, which is what the Maharit says, that you can’t consecrate. So he does connect it to the law of mere words, at least as he is quoted—I haven’t seen it inside. But when Rabbi Akiva Eiger quotes him, he says you can’t consecrate through an agent because it is mere words. But it could be that neither consecrating nor declaring ownerlessness is relevant to agency, because you don’t need an agent—do it yourself and that’s that. There is no situation in which someone has to represent you. That of course requires some additional assumption: that in places where agency isn’t needed, agency also isn’t defined. Even in things that are legal acts, like declaring ownerlessness or consecration—meaning, these are indeed legal acts—in those places where there is basically no added value to the agent, you don’t need the agent, it could be that the Torah simply does not define an agent at all. Fine. But in the Maharit at least, he ties it to the law of mere words. And he continues afterward and says: “However, regarding what I saw in the book Beit Meir mentioned above, at the beginning of his remarks, where he questioned the ruling of the above Maharit, for from Rashi’s explanation it appears that the problem with mere words is only that the agent cannot appoint another in his place, but the agent himself is effective with mere words, for a bill of divorce and a gift themselves are also nothing but words, and yet they write and give”—that is the end of his language. So he says against the Maharit: even if you think consecration is mere words, what’s the problem with mere words in the case of a first agent? The only thing you can’t do with mere words is appoint a second agent. So Rabbi Akiva Eiger says: that’s not correct, and this objection to the Maharit is not difficult. “And in my humble opinion we already wrote that this works well according to the one who says ‘say to others’ is valid, but according to the one who says ‘say to others’ is invalid, it is impossible to say that the problem with mere words is only that he cannot appoint another agent in his place, for when he says to the scribe ‘write,’ he is not appointing the scribe in his place, but rather by the husband’s instruction he says to him ‘write,’ and this itself is the first agent’s agency—to make the scribe an agent in place of the husband, and the scribe’s agency from the husband is created through this agent. And for this purpose the husband makes him an agent, that by his agency he should say to the scribe, ‘write.’ Rather, we are forced to say that one cannot make any agent at all for mere words.” And as for a bill of divorce and a gift, he argues that this is not mere words at all—it’s performing an action, so the whole category of mere words doesn’t apply. Now he continues: “However, it still requires examination according to the one who holds like the Maharam of Radosh,” a responsum cited in Beit Shmuel, “that in betrothal, even with a document, an agent cannot become an agent, since it still depends on her consent, and thus the act is not yet in the hands of the agent, for the agent does not have the power to complete the act, since perhaps she will not consent.” I mentioned the Rashba in a responsum who says also regarding blessings that if it depends on someone else, then you do not recite a blessing. The commandment of charity—why don’t we recite a blessing over the commandment of charity? Because maybe the poor person won’t want it. So it doesn’t depend only on you; you recite a blessing only over something that depends only on you. “If so, according to the one who says ‘say to others’ is invalid, according to our explanation, the reason is that even the first agency cannot work through mere words. If so, how can we ever find agency in betrothal?” Yes, the Maharam of Radosh says that even with a document, an agent does not become an agent. Why? Because anything that depends on the will of another party is called mere words. Because it’s not a complete act, since the act is not in your hands, so basically it has the status of mere words. He says: according to this, how can one appoint an agent for betrothal at all? After all, according to the one who says “say to others” is invalid, the problem with mere words already exists with the first agent, not only the second. And if agency for betrothal is mere words, then even a first agent cannot exist for betrothal—you can’t appoint an agent for betrothal. Yet it says, “A man betroths by himself or through his agent.” Yes, there is an agent for betrothal. “And investigate.” He says that according to the Maharam of Radosh, this doesn’t work—meaning Rabbi Akiva Eiger’s explanation doesn’t work. What? His reasoning.
[Speaker C] Right—an agent can’t complete the act, and therefore it’s mere words.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] But if it’s mere words, that’s it—then you can’t appoint an agent. So how can you appoint an agent for betrothal? If you say that the problem in agency exists only according to the one who says “say to others” is valid, who holds that the problem is only with the second agent, then according to the one who says “say to others” is invalid, there shouldn’t be any agent for betrothal at all.
[Speaker C] Because it’s mere words, right? Yes.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] And with mere words, even a first agent is impossible, not only a second agent. Here I suggest that there are two kinds of mere words. There is one type which is simply words—an agent for words. An agent for words—you cannot appoint even a first agent. Now with an agent in betrothal, certainly by means of a document, that definitely is not an agent for words; you hand him an object. That’s the basic definition excluding mere words. Rather, what’s the issue? It only depends on the woman’s consent. In such a case, this type of mere words—in the first agent there is no problem, only in the second agent. I’m distinguishing between two kinds of mere words. Meaning then it would come out that with mere words of this type, “say to others” would be valid. Because the problem is only with the second agent, not the first. Okay. Up to here the issue of mere words, at least for our purposes; we won’t be able to get beyond this. Fine, so now I’m moving on to agency for setting aside terumah. Let’s begin that. I sent you the page: agency for setting aside terumah. First I’ll start a little with the framework in the Talmud. I still want, we still have four more meetings besides today. I want also to get to acquisition on behalf of another, agency for a transgression, maybe agency regarding one’s own body as well, and commandments—agency concerning commandments. And beyond that I want agency for setting aside terumah; that’s more or less what I want to cover by Yom Kippur. So here first of all I want to mention what we saw in the name of Rabbi Shimon Shkop: that the law of agency requires the sender’s full control over the act. Right? Therefore we saw that what the Talmud discusses about agency in halitzah, and it says that whatever is not subject to condition is not subject to agency. Whatever you cannot appoint an agent for, you also cannot make conditional. Why? Because if you cannot appoint an agent for it, then you are not the exclusive master over the matter; you don’t have full control over it, and therefore you also cannot make it conditional. So we see that if you are not the absolute owner of the matter, you cannot appoint an agent. Okay? Yes, there’s something interesting here that I once heard from some fellow in a Sabbath class he gave אצלנו in Lod—Rabbi Isser Repshtein. He was a yeshiva lecturer in Kiryat Shemona and then went to work in high-tech. In any event, he suggested the following. He said: how do we derive the laws of acquisitions from the Scroll of Ruth? After all, it says, “A man drew off his shoe.” We learn the laws of acquisition from there, especially barter, but the laws of acquisitions in general. So he said that “a man drew off his shoe” basically expresses the firm intent of the one transferring ownership. That’s the act of acquisition expressing the transferor’s decisiveness. In halitzah, why does the woman remove the yavam’s shoe? Because the yavam did not take upon himself the responsibility to marry her in levirate marriage. Or in other words, he did not firmly resolve to do what he was supposed to do—what the Torah expects him to do—certainly if we hold that levirate marriage is the preferred path and halitzah is only after the fact. Okay? So he did not firmly resolve. So what is the symbol of that? That the woman removes his sandal. Basically, instead of him taking off his shoe and expressing firm intent, she does it. And that expresses the contempt shown toward him because he basically wasn’t a man, he didn’t firmly resolve. Exactly. Because many times we think—and that’s usually how people understand it, certainly today—that halitzah is an humiliation of the woman. That’s why today there are all kinds of complaints about the matter, that the halitzah ceremony is humiliating and things like that. By the way, I never understood that. Meaning, it’s not a pleasant ceremony, but it’s not that there is some essential humiliation of the woman here. What there is—yes. What is it? He argues that it’s a humiliation of the man, not the woman. Even better. I’m saying, the idea is to humiliate the man, not the woman—because he didn’t do his duty, he didn’t enter levirate marriage with her. And he says the humiliation is also symbolic, meaning he didn’t do the required act, and firm intent is expressed by “a man drew off his shoe,” so she removes his shoe. She basically does the act in his place. Fine, never mind, that’s just in parentheses. In any case, what does that mean? It basically expressed the fact that he has no control over the matter. Halitzah is the removal of control from his power. Basically, she removes it from him; he doesn’t remove it from her. So how could he create agency in halitzah? It’s not his act at all; it’s her act. We always say, “He performs halitzah with her,” right? That’s the halakhic expression, that the yavam performs halitzah for his yevamah. But no—she removes his shoe, not he hers. Meaning, the claim is basically: you didn’t perform halitzah, so she performs it to you in place of your performing it to her. An interesting idea. In any event, for our purposes, what matters is that you need control over the matter in order to appoint an agent. Right? That’s what we learned. Now let’s look at the Talmud. The Talmud makes a need-for-both argument between the sources for agency. “We found it in divorce; from where do we know it in betrothal? And if you say that it is learned from divorce—what is unique about divorce? That it can take place against her will. The verse says, ‘And she goes out and becomes’; it compares becoming to going out. Just as with going out one appoints an agent, so too with becoming one appoints an agent.” Yes, so agency in betrothal is learned from agency in divorce. Now from agency in divorce you couldn’t learn directly because it’s against her will, but they make the comparison of “and she goes out and becomes.” And we said that a comparison cannot be refuted—remember we spoke about that, that a comparison cannot be refuted—therefore the fact that there is a refutation here doesn’t matter if I’m learning it from a comparison. What does this mean, exactly? What does it mean that “divorce can take place against her will,” and therefore you can’t learn from divorce to betrothal? Why is the fact that it can be against her will a refutation? Because the husband’s control over the act is absolute. Right? As opposed to betrothal, which depends on the woman’s consent. Therefore we also saw that this is mere words according to the Ketzot and the Rashba and so on—yes? Because it basically depends on the woman’s consent. So that is exactly what is being said here. Since it can be done against her will, if it can be done against her will then full control is in the husband’s hands. Full control is in the husband’s hands, so perhaps that is why indeed the husband can appoint an agent for delivery in divorce, and you cannot learn from that to betrothal, where he does not have full control. So we see that the dimension of control is relevant to the question whether you can appoint an agent. The stronger your control, the more you can appoint an agent. So perhaps let’s learn it from agency of receipt in divorce? In agency of receipt, after all, the woman appoints an agent, and she has no control at all. Right? Since it can be against her will—that was the refutation to the second derivation. So then learn from agency of receipt by an a fortiori argument. After all, a refutation in one direction is an a fortiori argument in the other direction, right? Why in divorce is it easier to have an agent than in betrothal? Because it can be against her will. Right? So now with an agent of receipt, if it can be against her will, then learn from there to betrothal. So—I said about this that it is a different kind of agency. Agency over an act, and you can’t learn from that to agency over a legal power. And that basically means that the fact that something can occur against the woman’s will serves two functions, in two directions. On the one hand, it strengthens the husband’s power to appoint an agent because he is the exclusive controller. On the other hand, when the woman appoints an agent, it is clear that this is not the usual type of agents, of power of attorney. It’s something else. Therefore you can’t learn anything from that. It clearly needs a special source. And from that source you can’t learn to other agency.
[Speaker C] But if the agent of receipt received the bill of divorce and he lost the bill of divorce? What? But if the agent received the bill of divorce—the woman’s receiving agent—and he lost the bill of divorce?
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] It doesn’t matter. The moment he received the bill of divorce, she is divorced. He doesn’t need to bring her the bill of divorce. In principle he could even throw it away. You don’t need to preserve the bill of divorce except as evidence and so on, but the moment he received the bill of divorce into his hand, she is divorced. That is also the moment of divorce. Not only is that the act that effects the divorce, it is also the moment of divorce. The moment of divorce is when the agent received the bill of divorce. There is a question: what happens if you give the bill of divorce to the agent and you say, “But she won’t be divorced until the bill of divorce reaches her”? Then there is a problem that the agency does not revert to the husband, and the Talmud discusses these matters. That’s more complicated. In an ordinary receiving agent, it’s from the moment he receives it. The Talmud continues: “But as to that which we learned: one who says to his agent, ‘Go separate terumah’—he separates according to the owner’s intent. And if he does not know the owner’s intent, he separates an average amount, one fiftieth. If he reduced by ten or added by ten, his terumah is terumah.” This is a Mishnah in Terumot, chapter 4, mishnah 4. What do we see? That there is agency in terumah, right? You can appoint someone to separate terumah for you. From where do we know this? And of course this is not a Torah source; it’s a source from a Mishnah. So it can’t be the ultimate source. We see that there is agency for setting aside terumah, but the question still remains: where did the Mishnah know this from? We need a source from the Torah. From where did the Mishnah know that one may appoint an agent for terumah? So the Talmud says: “And if you say that it is learned from divorce—what is unique about divorce? That it is secular.” The verse says, “You too”—to include the agent. You cannot learn it from divorce, because divorce is secular and terumah is sacred. Why should sacred matters be less able to involve agency than secular matters? Again, in my opinion this is an issue of control. Sacred property—every place it exists, it belongs to the domain of the Merciful One. Meaning, sacredness is basically a domain unto itself; everything is in the domain of the sacred. Okay. Therefore your control over sacred matters, even if they are in your possession, is basically limited control, and therefore you cannot learn from agency in divorce to agency in terumah. Because this is sacred. You cannot learn sacred from secular. In secular matters it is easier to perform legal acts. In sacred matters you need special novelties. Again, I think this connects to the issue of degree of control. So what then? So you can’t learn it from divorce? By the way, this is the place to ask: why not learn it from betrothal? Betrothal is also sacred, isn’t it? The Talmud on page 6 says regarding betrothal that if one says, “the leg of this woman should be elevated,” it compares this to consecrating half a woman. And it says that just as in consecration the holiness spread to all of it, so too in betrothal the betrothal would spread to all of her. And the medieval authorities and later authorities explain there that this is literally like consecration—that is, betrothal has a dimension of sacredness. Meaning, the act of betrothal—there’s room to elaborate here as well—but from the Talmud here we see not so. Otherwise the Talmud would say: fine, betrothal is learned by “and she goes out and becomes” from divorce, and from betrothal, which is sacred, we can learn to terumah. What’s the problem?
[Speaker C] Because something is lacking there. What? There too there is no control; you need the consent of the other side.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] Ah, you’re saying there would be a different refutation in betrothal? Right—it is sacred, but it requires the woman’s consent. Okay.
[Speaker F] But what about a common denominator, maybe?
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] What common denominator?
[Speaker F] That one appoints an agent.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] “Appoints an agent” is the result. What is the common denominator? The common denominator has to be some shared characteristic between the two that determines the ability to appoint an agent. Now it’s true that sometimes the Talmud doesn’t frame it and explicitly state what the common denominator is. Yes? “Commanded immediately and for generations”—that’s the example in the baraita of examples of a common denominator. Meaning: here there is command immediately and for generations, and there too there is command, so everywhere “command” means immediately and for generations. Why everywhere? What is shared by all commands? Many times the Talmud says there is a refutation from here and a refutation from there, so let both come and let us learn from both of them. But usually that’s not how it works. Usually they say: the common denominator of both is such-and-such, that it is your property and its safeguarding is upon you, or that they have some characteristic, and because of that one is liable to pay damages, like the first mishnah in Bava Kamma. Therefore anything that is your property and its safeguarding is upon you must—meaning, you need some characteristic shared by the two source cases, because the refutations always say there is a characteristic unique to the first source that is not found in the second or in the learned case. And there is a characteristic unique to the second that is not found in the first nor in the learned case. Therefore from each one alone you can’t learn. Now if you want to learn from both together, then you need to find a characteristic shared by both source cases that is also found in the learned case. Because if it is found in both but not in the learned case, that itself will be a refutation. One can refute the common denominator by pointing to a characteristic shared by the two source cases. That is a refutation of the common denominator. So there has to be a shared characteristic between the two source cases that also exists in the learned case. Fine, in any event there is some room for hesitation here. You could say yes: precisely if there is no shared characteristic, that shows that anyone who can appoint an agent can appoint an agent, because we see that it doesn’t depend on anything—because the fact is that the unique characteristics do not matter, since both betrothal and divorce work. You do find things like that in the Talmud. Apparently here the Talmud doesn’t do that because it is looking for a shared characteristic. Maybe Tosafot says this; I no longer remember. Wait, maybe elsewhere a little… no. Fine, in any event, the Talmud brings another source for the law of agency. So if so, we now already have three sources. One source in divorce for the three types of agency. In betrothal it is “and she goes out and becomes,” and we discussed the question: what in betrothal? Delivery, receipt, and so on? Whether an agent can appoint another agent. And in terumah it is “so shall you also set aside”—“you too” includes your agent. There is a bit of room… there is a bit of room to hesitate whether “so shall you also set aside” is an interpretive derivation. And what is the meaning of the verse? “You too” means someone else too—there is someone else. Not a derivation, just the meaning of the verse. There is room to hesitate whether this is a derivation or not. In any case, it includes the agent. Then the Talmud—again, you see that a source is needed for every halakhic context; I spoke about this in the first class—says: “And let the Merciful One write it only concerning terumah, and let these others come and be learned from it.” Because there is a possible refutation: terumah can be done by thought. Therefore from terumah you cannot learn about divorce and betrothal. About betrothal there is never a question, because betrothal is learned from divorce by “and she goes out and becomes.” There is no special source for betrothal for which you ask whether it is superfluous. But regarding divorce there is always the question: learn divorce from terumah, and “and she goes out and becomes” will already teach betrothal. Okay? So he says no, because terumah can be done by thought, while divorce and betrothal require speech. Meaning—or action, speech—but thought alone does not help. What does it mean that terumah can be done by thought? “He directs his eyes to this side and eats from that side,” as it is written, “and it shall be considered,” “and your terumah shall be considered for you”—it can be separated by thought. What does this mean? That your control over the matter is much stronger, right? You don’t even need an act; it’s enough that I think something and it becomes terumah. And again, the parameter of control is the important one. And the refutation—or the a fortiori argument, depending in which direction you look—is always determined by your degree of control over the matter. If it can be done by thought, then your control is complete. If the control is complete, then from the fact that one can appoint an agent for terumah you cannot learn to bills of divorce and betrothal. Okay? Fine. Now I’m going to enter for a moment into terumah itself. So we saw the Mishnah that was cited. Here. “One who says to his agent, ‘Go separate terumah’—he separates according to the owner’s intent. And if he does not know the owner’s intent, he separates an average amount, one fiftieth. If he reduced by ten or added by ten, his terumah is terumah.” And from this we learn that there is agency in terumah. How do we know? “So shall you also set aside”—to include your agent. We’ll see later that the source from terumah is considered the main source in the Talmud. Generally, when they want to find a source for agency, they bring “so shall you also set aside.” For example, “Just as you are members of the covenant, so too your agents must be members of the covenant,” and therefore a gentile cannot be an agent. So additional laws of agency are learned mainly from this source of terumah. Fine. In any event, for our purposes two laws appear here. First: I can say to my agent, “Go separate terumah.” That is the first law appearing in the Mishnah. And the second law is that if you don’t know how much to separate—one fortieth, one fiftieth, or one sixtieth—you separate according to the owner’s intent, and if he reduced by ten or added by ten, nothing happened. Okay? Two laws appear in the Mishnah. From where do we learn the law of agency? Seemingly from the first clause, right? From the fact that you appoint an agent. “If he reduced by ten or added by ten”—you don’t need that for this. Once he says to his agent, “Go separate terumah,” and it works, that shows there is agency in terumah. Why do we need to bring the continuation, that if he reduced by ten or added by ten, his terumah is terumah? The Pnei Yehoshua asks this, but on the face of it it’s not so terrible. Many times they quoted the… they don’t quote only the first clause, they quote the Mishnah more fully. Okay? So they also bring the continuation, but in principle the law of agency is learned from the first clause of the Mishnah. You really don’t need the latter clause that says, “If he reduced by ten or added by ten, his terumah is terumah.” But the Pnei Yehoshua argues not that way. Before I get to the Pnei Yehoshua, just a note. Look at Rashi. “He separates according to the owner’s intent”—according to how he knows the owner, whether generous-eyed or stingy-eyed: generous-eyed is one out of forty, stingy-eyed is one out of sixty, for no explicit measure was stated for terumah, only ‘the first of your grain,’ and even any amount.” He means, simply, we are used to this. In the lesson on reasoning I sent—God willing—yes. Okay, so fine, that article, if I sent it, that’s what I meant. I’m only commenting here from Rashi in continuation of that article, because from Rashi here it is usually accepted to think that the Torah-level measure for terumah is that one grain exempts the whole pile, and the rabbis established three measures: one out of forty for the generous eye, one out of sixty for the stingy eye, one out of fifty for the average eye. But there are Talmudic passages and in Maimonides it is systematically clear that these are Torah-level measures, not rabbinic measures—one out of forty, fifty, and sixty. And Rashi here also implies that way. It’s not conclusive, but it seems to me the plain sense of his language is that way. Because what does he say? “It has no explicit measure, only ‘the first of your grain.’” So one out of forty, one out of fifty, one out of sixty is an unexplicit measure. What does “it has no explicit measure” mean? If the Torah-level measure is one grain and the rabbis established one out of forty, fifty, and sixty—what does explicit and unexplicit have to do with it? It has nothing to do with explicit or unexplicit. It’s also not unexplicit in the Torah. It’s a rabbinic measure. And Rashi seems to say that the difference is—and also in the Taz, in Rashi in Hullin—Rashi seems to say that the difference is that one grain is not the explicit measure, and one out of forty, fifty, and sixty are the real measures, they’re just not explicit in the verse. Fine, that’s basically the claim. And that whole article there is basically devoted to this issue. My claim is that the measures of one out of forty, fifty, and sixty are Torah-level, not rabbinic, contrary to what people usually think, and that has various implications. So I think you can also see that in Rashi here, but as far as I’m concerned I won’t get into that here. See the article if you want. Okay, so now look at the… wait. Where is it here?
[Speaker C] Why did I delete that file?
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] Okay. Before I enter the laws of terumah, I’ll preface with the law of acquisition on behalf of another, even though we’ll deal with it later, but I need it for the discussion of terumah. So the Talmud on page 42a, and later in Kiddushin, says as follows: “But as to that which Rav Giddel said in the name of Rav: From where do we know that a person’s agent is like himself? As it is stated, ‘And one prince, one prince from each tribe.’” Let us derive agency from here. Let’s learn agency from here. It says, “And one prince, one prince from each tribe,” so the prince basically acquired for the whole tribe the various inheritances in the Land. So we see that there is agency. From here one could learn the law of agency. He was the agent of his tribe to acquire the inheritances. “Why don’t we derive agency from here?” Why do we need the sources of terumah, divorce, betrothal? Here is a source. So the Talmud says: “Can you really think that this is agency? But minors are not subject to agency.” How can you tell me that this is agency? He acquired inheritances also for minors, and there is no agency for a minor; a minor sender cannot appoint an agent. Therefore it is clear that this is not the law of agency. So what is it? “Rather, like that statement of Rabbah bar Rav Huna, for Rabbah bar Rav Huna said that Rav Giddel said that Rav said: From where do we know that one may acquire on a person’s behalf in his absence? As it is stated, ‘And one prince, one prince.’” We learn the law of acquisition on behalf of another from here, not the law of agency. And simply from this Talmudic passage it seems that acquisition on behalf of another is not based on agency. I commented on this in one of the earlier lessons. Right? What does it say? If it were agency, then it shouldn’t work for minors. If it works for minors, then it’s not agency. What is it then? It’s the law of acquisition on behalf of another. And that law works even for minors; the law of agency does not. Okay? Therefore what is learned here is the law of acquisition on behalf of another, and you cannot learn from here the law of agency, because of course that’s the point. What is learned from here is the law of acquisition on behalf of another, not the law of agency, and you cannot learn agency from here. Okay? Once again, you see that the law of acquisition on behalf of another and the law of agency are not the same thing. The Talmud asks: “Can you really think it is a benefit? There is also a liability, for there are those who prefer a mountain and not a valley, and those who prefer a valley and not a mountain.” It wasn’t always a benefit. After all, you give this one this inheritance and that one that inheritance—maybe he would have preferred the other one and the other one would have preferred this one. It is a benefit in principle, but it is a benefit that also has an aspect of liability. Okay, so what? What does that mean? It basically means that something like this can be done only by means of an agent, not by acquisition on behalf of another. Therefore the Talmud says: you’re telling me this is acquisition on behalf of another and not agency? Not true. If it were acquisition on behalf of another, you couldn’t do something that also has a liability aspect. A complex thing like this, which is indeed a benefit but also has a liability aspect—that only an agent can do, not someone acquiring on another’s behalf. Okay? “Rather, like that statement of Rabbah bar Rav Huna, for Rabbah bar Rav Huna said that Rav Giddel said that Rav said: From where do we know that with orphans who come to divide their father’s property, the court appoints a guardian for them both to their detriment and to their benefit? To their detriment—why? Rather, to their detriment for the sake of their benefit. The verse says: ‘One prince, one prince from a tribe you shall take.’” In the end this is actually a source for something else entirely. But for our purposes—we’ll get to this when we discuss the law of acquisition on behalf of another—for our purposes what matters here is this: there is such a concept called acquisition on behalf of another. It does not operate through the mechanism of agency, at least that is what seems from the plain meaning of the Talmud, even though in the conclusion they back away from that; still, that is what appears from the plain meaning of the Talmud—it does not operate through the mechanism of agency. Now, when we speak about agency in terumah, we need to ask ourselves: when I say to someone, “Separate terumah for me,” and he can separate it as the Mishnah says, and from here the Talmud says you see there is agency for setting aside terumah—do you need an agent at all for setting aside terumah? It may be like what I said about ownerlessness and betrothal and consecration—sorry—it may be that you don’t need an agent at all. All that is needed is that I agree that you should separate the terumah. You can separate terumah, because once it has been separated, it has been separated, and I need to agree that it be transferred. Fine—that he should separate the terumah. What is this… first of all, you don’t have to give it to the priest. The separation fixes the untithed produce even before it is given to the priest. Afterward the terumah has to be given to the priest, but that’s… let him separate it, or I’ll give it, or the owner will give it—what difference does it make? But the separation itself I can do without giving it to the priest. Separation—I’m only separating terumah. That’s it.
[Speaker F] Transfer
[Speaker C] it to the priest.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] Fine. Now I’m asking: does that separation require being an agent in order to do it? Why? Maybe yes, maybe no. And on the contrary, from the Talmud it seems yes, because the Talmud learns from here the law of agency.
[Speaker C] But it’s thought, no? If it’s something… it’s not physical.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] Well, so all the more so, then you don’t need agency. So how does the Talmud learn the law of agency from here? The Talmud says that we see from here that there is agency with regard to terumah. But why exactly? In terumah, the fact that you can separate on my behalf is not because you are my agent, but because you don’t need to be an agent. If you separate on my behalf, everything is fine either by the rule of acting for someone’s benefit, or simply by virtue of my consent. That’s all. I just tell you, okay, as far as I’m concerned that’s fine. Obviously, if I don’t consent, you can’t separate terumah. You can’t take my produce and make terumah from it. That’s obvious. The question is what is required in order for you to be able to do it. Do I have to appoint you as an agent, or is it enough that I say I have no objection, no problem, everything is fine, go ahead and separate? And here there are three levels, and we’ll have to get to this later, so I’m already defining it here. One level is that I appoint you as an agent. A second level is that you act by the rule of acting for someone’s benefit. But that rule is like agency, whether it operates through agency or not, but still, you are acting as some kind of representative empowered by me. Maybe not through the formal law of agency, maybe through an alternative mechanism, but still the mechanism is that you act as my authorized representative. But there is a third mechanism: no agency, no acting for someone’s benefit, nothing at all is needed; all that is needed is that I not object. So if I told you, “Go separate,” what I really said is: I’m not objecting, do whatever you want. And if you go and separate, everything is fine. And maybe that is enough for the terumah to take effect. You don’t need to be my agent. If that’s so, then it’s not clear why the Talmud learns from here that there is agency in terumah. It could be that in terumah all that is needed is simply consent, that’s all. If the Talmud learns from here that there is a law of agency in terumah, the Talmud is apparently assuming that consent is not enough. And we’ll see proofs that that’s not true; consent is enough.
The Pnei Yehoshua says—yes, let me maybe give you an example. Someone builds a parapet on my house. I have a house that needs a parapet, and someone builds a parapet for me. Fine? Does he need to be my agent? Once he builds the parapet, my house has a parapet. That’s it, I’m exempt. You can discuss whether I have fulfilled the commandment of building a parapet, whether I performed the commandment. On the face of it, no. But clearly the house is no longer lacking a parapet, right? Meaning, it’s no longer obligated in a parapet because it has one. The same thing may be true of terumah. It could be that if he is not my agent, then I will not have a commandment in that separation of terumah, because I didn’t do it, he did it. Fine? But it could still be that the terumah takes effect. I won’t have the commandment, but the terumah has been separated. If I object, then the terumah also was not separated, because he can’t do it. But it may be enough that I consent in order for the terumah to take effect. Maybe you need an agent only so that I will have a commandment—although it is preferable to perform a commandment personally rather than through an agent, still there is also a commandment when it is done through an agent. Okay, so for that he has to be an agent. But for the terumah itself to take effect, who said agency is required? It could be that consent is enough, and certainly the rule of acting for someone’s benefit.
Now, in terumah this is more far-reaching than with a parapet. Because with a parapet, let’s say if he makes the parapet from his own materials, then what’s the problem? There’s no problem at all; clearly he did it and everything is fine. But what if he makes a parapet from my materials? What? Seemingly that’s theft. What do you mean? Leave it to me to decide whether I want to build a parapet or not. No, I didn’t invite him; he’s doing it on his own initiative. I said that if he makes the parapet, then the house has a parapet, fine? He’s not allowed to do it, right? I don’t know—the house has a parapet, but he’s not allowed to do it. Fine. In terumah he does it from my property. He takes my produce and separates terumah from it. Now it’s true that I am obligated to separate terumah for the priest, but practically speaking the produce is mine. As untithed produce, it’s mine. So when he separates produce of mine, there is room to say that maybe consent is not enough. Because we’ll see later that a person can separate produce of his own as terumah for my produce, and then clearly consent is enough. You don’t need agency. But if he does it from my produce, there is room to hesitate. There is another point too: maybe I want to do the commandment myself, and I’m not willing for someone else to do it, because I lose the commandment. And then I’m not willing for someone to do it in my name. So it could be that here you really do need agency.
But the Pnei Yehoshua comments as follows. He says: “If he reduced by ten or added by ten, his terumah is valid—from where do we know this? And it seems to me that it was necessary to bring the latter clause of the Mishnah.” We spoke about this: why did it bring the latter clause, that if he does not know the owner’s intent he separates an average amount, and if he reduced by ten or added by ten, his terumah is valid—why bring that? Let it just say at the beginning: “One who says to his agent, ‘Go separate terumah,’ he separates according to the owner’s intention.” We see there is agency in terumah; why do we need the continuation of the Mishnah? So I said that the difficulty isn’t so strong, because after all it brought the whole Mishnah even though the proof really is only from the first clause. But the Pnei Yehoshua argues that this is deliberate. By the way, I don’t remember—maybe it actually isn’t the whole Mishnah. And if it isn’t the whole Mishnah, then the point is even more correct. If they didn’t bring the entire Mishnah but only the first part, then it really is a question why they didn’t bring only the opening clause itself—why did they also bring the middle? Okay? I don’t remember at the moment whether it’s the end of the Mishnah or not. We’d have to look there.
In any case, the Pnei Yehoshua asks why they brought it, and he says this: “And it seems to me that it was necessary to bring the latter clause of the Mishnah, because from the first clause alone nothing is proven that we are dealing with the law of agency; for one could say that it is because it is to his benefit, and one may act to a person’s benefit in his absence.” If we had only the opening clause—“One who says to his agent, ‘Go separate terumah,’ he separates according to the owner’s intention”—I would not have been able to learn from here that there is agency in terumah. It could be that it works by the rule of acting for someone’s benefit, the same rejection we saw regarding the princes in the division of the Land. If it works by that rule, then you can’t bring proof from here that there is a law of agency. The same thing here. Even when it says, “He says to his agent, ‘Go separate terumah,’” the fact that he separates may be because of that rule. So why did I say to my agent, “Go separate”? Why do I have to tell him if it’s by the rule of acting for someone’s benefit? I have to tell him because otherwise it may be that I don’t want him to separate; it’s not a benefit, because I lose the commandment. Fine, I want to do the commandment myself, or at least I lose the advantage of personally doing a commandment rather than doing it through an agent. That advantage I certainly lose. And therefore I need to tell him to separate, so that he will go and separate. But practically speaking, now that I told him, when he goes and separates it is not necessarily agency; it could be by the rule of acting for someone’s benefit.
I’ll now add in parentheses—this is how the Pnei Yehoshua writes, and I’m adding in parentheses—it could be that it’s not even a matter of acting for his benefit, but simply consent. I simply revealed that I have no problem with it. Yes, exactly—but not even acting for someone’s benefit, just plain consent. The Pnei Yehoshua formulates it in terms of that rule, but it doesn’t have to be that. And therefore he says that from the opening clause by itself one could not prove that there is agency in terumah. “And even though one could say that it is not to his benefit, since a person prefers to perform a commandment himself, nevertheless, since he revealed his intention that he does not care, because he said ‘Go separate,’ therefore he can separate, by the rule of acting for someone’s benefit and not because of agency where there is an element of obligation in the matter itself. And even though regarding the rule of acting for someone’s benefit itself, most commentators agreed that it operates through agency, nevertheless this is not so absolutely compelling, as I will explain later. Therefore it brings the latter clause.”
What is he saying? He’s saying that if I only had the opening clause, I wouldn’t be sure that this is by the law of agency; it could be by the rule of acting for someone’s benefit. You’ll say: maybe that rule doesn’t apply because perhaps he doesn’t want it, because he wants to perform the commandment himself. But he said to his agent, “Go separate terumah.” And the reason the Mishnah has to get to the point that he says to his agent, “Go separate,” is not because he is appointing him as an agent, but because without that he cannot separate. Fine? But once I said that to him, all I did was reveal my intention that I have no problem with it, and from then on he separates by the rule of acting for someone’s benefit—and I would add, even more so, maybe not even by that rule but simply on his own, and I merely consented, so I have no problem with it.
And therefore they brought the latter clause, says the Pnei Yehoshua, because from the latter clause it is clear that this is by the law of agency and not by the rule of acting for someone’s benefit. Why? As I said before: “Therefore it brings the latter clause of the Mishnah, that if he reduced by ten or added, his terumah is valid. This implies that even though there is an element of obligation, nevertheless it is effective since he said to him, ‘Go separate terumah,’ and he can say, ‘This is what I meant.’ This implies that it is by reason of agency; so it seems to me.” From the opening clause you couldn’t prove that it is by the law of agency, because it could be by the rule of acting for someone’s benefit. Ah, but there is an element of obligation there, because maybe I myself wanted to do the commandment? No—he said to him, “Go separate terumah,” so he revealed his intention that he has no problem with not doing the commandment himself. From then on it is a complete benefit; it falls under the rule of acting for someone’s benefit. So when he separates, that is not proof that there is agency in terumah; it could be that he is operating by that rule.
That is why they brought the latter clause. Why? Because if he didn’t tell him how much, then he acts according to his understanding. And if he reduced by ten or added by ten, meaning the owner comes and says, “Wait, wait, I wanted one-fiftieth, and the one separating for me took one-fortieth? That’s too much, I didn’t want that.” Even so, his terumah is valid. Why? By the rule of acting for someone’s benefit, this could not have worked, because that rule does not work in a case where there is also an element of obligation. Therefore it must be by the law of agency, and that is why they brought the latter clause, because from the latter clause there is clear proof that there is such a concept as agency in terumah. From the opening clause, it could also work by the rule of acting for someone’s benefit.
And after all, merely revealing my intention that I consent even to ten more than I had in mind—there is nothing in my saying to him “Go separate terumah” from which you can prove that I consented even to one-fortieth. I assumed that he knows how much I usually separate and that he would separate accordingly. But the Talmud says that even if he added ten, his terumah is valid. So you see from here that it is by the law of agency and not by the rule of acting for someone’s benefit, because by that rule it could not have worked. The rule of acting for someone’s benefit does not work when there is an element of obligation, although even on that we’ll see there is a discussion in the Talmud there, like what I mentioned earlier about the acquisition by the princes. But we’ll get to that when we discuss the rule of acting for someone’s benefit and we’ll see it. Okay, we’ll stop here.