Q&A: Inclusive Term, Limiting Term, and Inclusive Term
Inclusive Term, Limiting Term, and Inclusive Term
Question
Hello Rabbi,
As is well known, there is a dispute between Rabbi Ishmael and Rabbi Akiva as to whether the Torah is expounded by means of general and specific formulations, or by means of inclusive and limiting terms.
My question is about Rabbi Akiva’s approach, which expounds inclusive and limiting terms: in a case of an inclusive term, then a limiting term, then an inclusive term, where the final inclusive term comes to include everything again (like the first inclusive term), why was only the first inclusive term not written?
Likewise, in a case of a limiting term followed by an inclusive term, where the inclusive term includes everything, why was only the inclusive term not written?
(It would also be possible to ask this according to Rabbi Ishmael’s approach of general and specific: according to his view, the specific term is an explanation of the general term, so why was the general term written and not only the specific one? But according to Rabbi Ishmael, the Torah speaks in human language, so it is not such a difficult question.)
Thank you,
Natan
Answer
Even according to Rabbi Akiva, one thing is always excluded. That is, it does not really include absolutely everything. Note that this is so in all the passages.
As for general and specific, the medieval authorities (Rishonim) already addressed this, and wrote that it comes to exclude making an analogy from the specific term to other contexts.
As for a limiting term followed by an inclusive term, you cannot include anything unless you write what is being included. There is no instance in the Torah of a mere inclusive term by itself.