Q&A: Definition of the Postmodernist Figure
Definition of the Postmodernist Figure
Question
Hello Rabbi,
Recently, a lesson was given in my yeshiva (Yeshivat Kiryat Shmona) on the subject of “postmodernism.” As part of the sources for the lesson, passages were quoted from the books “Truth and Not Certainty” (pp. 164–165) and “Two Wagons and a Hot-Air Balloon” (pp. 211–213).
The implied conclusion from the definition of the “postmodern figure” as it came up in the lesson is that there is a paradox in the postmodern method. The postmodernist, the analytic person, on the one hand claims that no value should be imposed on him, since no truth has proven itself and one cannot determine that a certain value is true, while at the same time presenting the claim that “one may not impose” as a value in itself. This creates a contradiction, because he himself, according to his own approach, cannot claim that something specific is true, and therefore cannot claim that it is forbidden to impose.
In my view, this paradox is the product of a non-obligatory definition. It arises only when one assumes that the postmodernist sees the desire “not to impose anything because there is no real/certain value” as a value in its own right. But perhaps the “analytic person” is someone who says something else: that he does not know that anything is true, and therefore simply cannot impose anything, nor will he let other people impose anything on him. Not because he holds the value that “it is forbidden to impose,” but simply because, practically speaking, he does not want people forcing him to do something he does not want to do.
It seems unfair to me to define the figure of the “postmodernist” in a way that creates a paradox and then argue that therefore there is a contradiction in the postmodern approach. Moreover, precisely when we come to define the “analytic person,” I would expect that by the very fact that he is defined as “analytic,” we would portray him as someone who does not contradict himself and does not believe in the “value that one must not impose” when that stands in contradiction to his claim that there are no values.
All that can really be known is that there is a social-behavioral phenomenon of people who have lost hope in “truths,” because those truths do not seem to prove themselves. But constructing a definition of what lies behind the behavior of these people remains speculative, and therefore one cannot determine that there is some paradoxical philosophical approach.
One can argue that there are people who behave in a contradictory and paradoxical way, but that does not mean that the postmodern approach is paradoxical at its root. A seemingly honest, “analytic” person ought to be consistent and admit that the reason he does not allow others to coerce him is not grounded in any value, but simply that for practical reasons he does not allow that coercion.
I would be happy to hear the Rabbi’s response to these points.
Answer
The claim that if he is analytic then it is impossible to find contradictions in his doctrine reminds me of the claim that there is no such thing as a religious thief, because if he is a thief then he is not religious.
But regarding the matter itself, you are right. A person can oppose coercion because it is uncomfortable for him and not as a value. Except that in most cases that is not the situation. Their opposition to coercion appears as a value, especially when they also fight against coercion imposed on others where they themselves have nothing to fear. There it is certainly a value.
Of course, the contradiction, even if it exists, is not in the outlook but in the people. Complete skepticism is consistent (to the extent that consistency can even be defined there), but skeptical people can be criticized if they are not skeptical in certain areas.
Discussion on Answer
I already answered that.
Thank you very much
Thank you very much for the Rabbi’s response,
First of all, I should explain that by “analytic person” I mean the hypothetical figure of an upright and rational person. Seemingly, if I were in a position to define who the “analytic person” is, I would say that he would be honest and coherent. Of course, there may be irrational people, but it would not be correct to define the representative figure that way.
So I suppose my question is this: if the Rabbi agreed with me that the lack of consistency stems not from the skepticism, but from the behavior of specific people, doesn’t that mean that it would be incorrect to define the “approach” as inconsistent?