Q&A: Question about a Talmudic expression
Question about a Talmudic expression
Question
Hello and blessings,
We learned a passage in Berakhot 10: “Rabbi Yitzhak said, and Rabbi Yose son of Rabbi Hanina said in the name of Rabbi Eliezer ben Yaakov: What is the meaning of that which is written in Leviticus 19:26, ‘You shall not eat over the blood’? 3 [It means:] You shall not eat before you pray for your blood…”
After clarifying whether this law is Torah-level or rabbinic, and what the Rif’s view is on the subject (Rabbeinu Yonah on the Rif explicitly writes that this verse is merely an asmachta. But according to Maimonides and Sefer HaChinukh, one would have to say that the prohibition of eating before prayer is Torah-level),
we started thinking about the expression “What is the meaning of that which is written”. What is its plain sense?
Is it similar to “From where are these words derived?” or “From where do we know this?” or “as it is said” — whose implication is: there is a law, and the source of the law is such-and-such?
Or is the plain sense of “What is the meaning of that which is written” that it is an exposition on a particular verse, but not a halakhic exposition; rather more of an explanation or interpretation or expansion of a verse in the Hebrew Bible (Tanakh)? Very often in the Talmud, what follows “What is the meaning of that which is written” seems more aggadic or more emotionally evocative.
Is there any logic to what I’m suggesting?
Do you know of any article on this subject, or sources where I could look into the differences between: “From where are these words derived?” or “From where do we know this?” or “as it is said” or “What is the meaning of that which is written”? When does the Talmud use this expression and not another?
With all due respect,
Answer
In Maimonides, in the ninth root, it appears clearly that this is a Torah-level law.
As for your question, I don’t know. It requires a comprehensive examination throughout the Talmud. I’m not familiar with any source that deals with this, and I assume this is a question for academic Talmud researchers.
I did not understand your suggestion for interpreting “What is the meaning of that which is written.” After all, here it is a halakhic interpretation and not an aggadic one. And according to Maimonides, it appears to be a Torah-level prohibition and not merely an asmachta. Perhaps you mean an interpretation that departs from the simple plain meaning (the literal sense), but even that does not really fit here.