Q&A: On Conversion
On Conversion
Question
Hello Rabbi,
In column 469 on the conversion controversies, you cited Rabbi Melamed’s words, and also Rabbi Tavdi and Rabbi Schatz, who take Rabbi Melamed’s sources and analyze them. The Rabbi noted that both sides have a hidden bias/tendency (each one interprets all the sources in his own direction), and I wanted to ask: in the Rabbi’s view, which of the two interpretations is more correct—Rabbi Tavdi’s or Rabbi Schatz’s? Which one aimed closer to the truth?
Answer
I don’t remember at the moment, and we’re talking about quite a few sources. In light of what I wrote in the column, I assume you can understand both my position (which does not necessarily agree with those sources even if their interpretation points in a certain direction) and also the correct interpretation. If there is one particular source about which you are uncertain, you can raise it here, present the two sides of the doubt, and ask.
Discussion on Answer
I’m relatively new, so I didn’t know that’s how it’s done (= regarding posting a talkback on that same column), and I did understand the Rabbi’s position and connected with it, but still—regarding the sources: Rabbi Uzziel—I didn’t understand how Rabbi Tavdi explains his explicit words: “that it is permitted and a commandment to accept male and female converts even though we know that they will not accept all the commandments…” etc. And likewise regarding Rabbi Mashash, the two of them say completely opposite things (= Rabbi Tavdi and Rabbi Schatz).
Did you read what he wrote? He explained it. Read it carefully, and if there’s something you didn’t understand or don’t agree with, write it.
By the way, why aren’t you asking this in a talkback comment on that same column?