Question

Good morning!
Zeno, in his paradoxes, wanted to prove that, for example, the concept of motion is not as we perceive it; rather, in reality itself there is no motion at all (neither in space nor in time), and everything we perceive as motion exists only in consciousness (that is, in the phenomenon?). I compared it to this: just as an animated film is made up of countless pictures, and all the motion exists only in the connection between them and not in reality itself, but only in the way it is presented relative to the observer—relative to everything. (Perhaps according to Kant, and seemingly this is supported by Einstein, that time and space are only human perception, then it would be understandable that reality itself does not actually move, but rather we perceive parts of it?)
And my question is: even if, in our perception, we divide space infinitely, still, granted that the whole concept of motion exists only in consciousness, even there it is not clear how it happens, since consciousness itself also divides infinitely (and reality itself does not do the dividing). If so, what is gained by saying that motion is a product of consciousness? That is just as difficult to understand.
Thank you very much!