Question

Sorry for driving the Rabbi crazy with my unrelated questions 🙂
Assuming there is no sukkah at the synagogue, many halakhic decisors wrote that each person should take the lulav at home in the sukkah before prayer, in order to gain the advantage of being in the sukkah.
In Hazon Ovadia an opposite line of reasoning was brought: after all, one has before him the commandments of lulav, prayer, and the recitation of Shema, and since prayer is more frequent and the principle of frequency applies, they take precedence over lulav.
Aside from the point that prayer is rabbinic while lulav is Torah-level / of biblical origin (at least on the first day), I thought to suggest a counter-counterargument: nowadays prayer is at a fixed time in the synagogue, so if I take the lulav before prayer I am not really putting it before prayer, because technically its time has not yet arrived. (Some halakhic decisors even permitted doing work before prayer if it is at a fixed time, since it is considered as though its time has not yet arrived.)
A. Is there really substance to the reasoning in Hazon Ovadia?
B. Is there really substance to my answer?
C. According to the Michael-Abraham approach, apparently both of us are mistaken. If so, I would be glad for the Rabbi to suggest what he thinks.
If I am talking nonsense and the Rabbi smacks me down harshly, I will accept the evil decree with love.
(Thanks to the Rabbi for all the blessed work; I drink in his words thirstily.)