Q&A: Obligation to Morality
Obligation to Morality
Question
It seems to me that you addressed item “A” in the past; I’d be happy if you could point me to the place where you discussed it, or answer here (or both..):
A. Why does my relating to certain values as moral allow me (if it does) to criticize other people even if they do not think so? (Of course I expect him to do the same, but what does that have to do with him? He doesn’t want to—what claim do I have against him? He simply doesn’t think that way.)
B. How can one prohibit an object to his fellow by a vow of prohibition if this is only my own relation to that object? (Maimonides and Ran—even though “he shall not break his word” is not addressed to the one from whom the object is prohibited, it is still prohibited to him. Or according to Ran, there is even a “he shall not break” with respect to the one to whom it is prohibited.) And as for myself—does a vow mean that if I decide that an object is vowed-forbidden (“it is konam to me with…”), then the Torah simply gave that force because I spoke with a certain wording and intention? (That is: is “he shall not break” that I violated my speech + harmed something that the Torah applied as a result of my speech, or is “he shall not break” really both together—you related to something differently, so it is different.) And how does this fit with the view of Ran/Maimonides?
Thank you.
Answer
A. If that person really disagrees with me, then I can think he is mistaken, but I have no way to criticize him morally. See Column 372. Criticism can be directed only at a person who behaves contrary to his own values. That of course happens quite often.
B. This can be done with respect to my own objects. They are under my control, and I can prohibit my fellow from using them. Of course I cannot prohibit an object that is not mine to my fellow. I do not understand everything else.