חדש באתר: NotebookLM עם כל תכני הרב מיכאל אברהם

Q&A: Request for Help on Matters of Faith

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Originally published:
This is an English translation (via GPT-5.4). Read the original Hebrew version.

Request for Help on Matters of Faith

Question

Hello Rabbi.
My name is X, I’m in second year at a yeshiva in Y, and lately I decided to investigate my faith. Right now I’m in a kind of postmodern state where for me everything is just in doubt.
I was very impressed by your personality and knowledge, and I tried to follow some of your videos. I’d be happy if you could answer my initial question.
Why do you believe in God? How did you reach that decision? Is it because, for you, that’s the only way to create a complete rational worldview, because of the principle of sufficient reason, which leads one to understand that God is the cause of all causes, and without Him it’s impossible to explain what caused the Big Bang?
Was some sort of inner drive to search for meaning also a consideration? And only as a result of the presence of a commanding God can we say that there is meaning? (If that’s not the reason, I’d be glad if you’d address the claim that in a secular world it’s impossible to speak of meaning.)
Was there any other consideration behind the decision?
This is the basic and first question. I hope you’ll have time to answer it, and maybe I’ll be able to continue asking more questions based on your answer.

Answer

Hello X.
A preliminary note. If you’re already in a postmodern state, there’s no point in discussion. A person in that state can’t hear and weigh arguments, because whatever you say, he immediately says it’s a subjective hallucination of the speaker, and really there is no truth, and the opposite is equally true. And even if there is a convincing argument, that conviction is just psychological-subjective. So what’s the point of discussing?
If you still want to discuss, then I assume you’re not yet in that state, but only considering it.
Belief in God, for me, cannot be the result of a search for meaning. The desire for there to be meaning is a wish, not an argument. The fact that I want there to be meaning doesn’t mean there actually is such a thing (as noted, I’m not a postmodernist and not a pragmatist who identifies wishes or benefits with truth).
I’ve just now written four notebooks (long ones) dealing with the four types of proofs for the existence of God (three from the Kantian classification and one more). There I lay out the path to faith in detail. In my opinion, someone who does not believe is simply not rational; that is, belief in God is a very well-grounded thing. And I say this as no small skeptic. Of course, we’re talking about a philosophical God (or philosophical gods, because each proof assumes a different definition of Him). From here to religious commitment there is still a ways to go, and about that I wrote a fifth booklet. Two more books I’m currently working on are supposed to complete the picture of a faith updated for our times (throwing out all sorts of unfounded and non-binding slogans we’re all educated on).

Discussing all this by email is of course very difficult. If you’d like to begin reading the philosophical arguments for belief in God, I can send you the notebooks mentioned above. The first deals with the ontological proof, and I suspect most people won’t be convinced by it. But it has value in clarifying the concept of proof, the concept of God, and the methodology of the discussion in general. The arguments in the next three notebooks are, in my opinion, much stronger in terms of persuasive power.
The notebooks are apparently meant to come out as a book, so for now I’d ask that you not distribute them.
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Questioner:
Rabbi, what do you say about this statement by Rabbi Cherlow—maybe all the booklets are doomed to fail? Maybe we simply cannot prove in an absolute way the existence of God?

“The attempt to base faith on proofs is indeed impossible.
Reason is not capable of containing things greater than itself. Just as it cannot contain the concept of ‘love’ and prove its existence, or the term ‘morality’ and prove its existence.
Reason has an important role. But a limited one. Like everything else.
Our faith draws from the special intimacy we have with our ancestors, with our history, with what we have been told about our God, and with partial rational proofs (the unique history of the Jewish people; the unique history of the Land of Israel; and so forth), and with many other dimensions of personality.
In this respect, faith is more similar to the process of falling in love than to a process of mathematical proof.”
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Rabbi:
A very common statement, but plainly mistaken. True, there is room for personal impression from the tradition (see booklet five), but that is certainly not the whole picture, and certainly not necessarily the whole picture (perhaps a person can base his faith on such impressions, but Rabbi Cherlow claims one must base it on that because it can’t be done otherwise). Read what I wrote and you’ll see that this is not true. The fact that this is something greater than us is just a slogan. If I believe in something, then I’m supposed to understand what I believe in. And once I understand some claim, I see no reason it cannot be proven. On the other hand, if I don’t understand something, I cannot believe in it.
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Questioner:
Can I photocopy the booklets for myself? Would that be okay with you?
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Rabbi:
Yes.
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Questioner:
Do you see that as a legitimate claim, but one that doesn’t occupy a place in your world of faith? If yes or no, then why?
What about the Jewish God? Do you think someone who doesn’t believe in Him and believes in a Muslim or Christian God is also not rational?
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Rabbi:
It has weight. In general, my worldview is built on a whole set of claims. It’s not right to discuss each claim separately (see booklet V).
Rationality requires belief in some kind of God.
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Questioner:
First of all, thank you so much for the answer, and also for the astonishing speed.
As for the search for meaning—I understood your argument. But can one ignore the fact that all human beings search for meaning? And a person without meaning is a depressed person. That’s not a philosophical argument, but it says that if it’s this way for everyone, then there’s something to it. I have rabbis in my yeshiva who say exactly that, and that is the basis for faith. I see there’s a gap between you and them, because they would say, I think, that this is above the whole philosophical discussion—they simply wouldn’t accept that it’s such a powerful engine in a person and yet doesn’t point to a certain truth. What do you say?
I’d really be happy to receive the booklets! (I hope I’ll understand them… they told me your books are hard.)
By the way, according to your view, is someone who doesn’t believe in the Jewish God also not rational?
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Rabbi:
The claim that if everyone seeks meaning, that is an indication that there is meaning, is a completely legitimate claim, and it sounds plausible to me. Here there is a philosophical assumption, not a psychological one like the previous formulation (that we want meaning).
Here are the booklets. Of course, this is what I’ve written so far. The wording is not final.
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Questioner:
As a result of my doubts, I don’t know whether to continue praying or observing commandments at all right now, even though I used to feel very connected to them and very enthusiastic about them,

Because the question keeps coming up for me: “Maybe this is just excitement for its own sake? After all, the Christian and the Buddhist and many others also claim enthusiasm and total devotion.”

I also want to remain objective in the inquiry. It could very well be that I’ll decide Judaism is not true, despite the sorrow that would cause me.

Maybe I need to continue keeping the “kindness of youth” from the times when I had experiential certainty, and it’s okay that I have certain doubts; I always had them (just with less intensity).

I really don’t know. Right now I’m making a bit of a “salad”—I do the minimum (which of course isn’t so clearly defined), and then go back to studying the issue.

What do you think?
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Rabbi:
I meet many people in that state, and in my opinion many of them are mixing up truth and certainty a bit. The fact that you don’t have certainty is only logical and natural. There is certainty about nothing. But the fact that there is no certainty doesn’t mean that what you think has the same status as any other thought (= postmodern skepticism). You need to decide whether something seems reasonable to you or not, and not trouble yourself with the question of maybe there is some deceiving demon. Such challenges can also be raised regarding science and just ordinary things you see with your own eyes. But if you think it’s true, then it’s true, and that’s that.
I also have no certainty—not about the existence of God, not about the revelation at Mount Sinai, and not about anything else. And still, what I think is what I think, and if in my estimation it’s true, then I go with it. A person cannot reach more than that, and therefore it’s reasonable that no more is demanded of him. As for the comparison to other religions, see the fifth booklet I sent you.
It’s important to clarify that I’m not offering psychological therapy here or a calming prescription. I’m talking about the truth. The tools we have for reaching truth are the ones we have, and therefore someone who believes in the ability to reach truth in some realm (science, theology, morality, or any other field) trusts them and has no reason to doubt them. He of course needs to understand that there is no certainty, but what I mean here is doubt in the sense that gives them no status because the chance that everything is an illusion is the same as the chance that everything is true.
In other cases, the doubts begin from realizing that part of what we were educated on is dubious (at best), and then people start wondering about everything. Here too I suggest (from experience) not getting overly shaken. Throw out what does not seem correct (without hesitation, but after serious clarification), and keep what does seem reasonable. Contrary to what they sell us, our tradition is not a package deal. You may, and should, sift out what is reasonable from it and throw away other things. What is reasonable is not necessarily what we understand, but what is appropriate to do (given at Sinai, or by a prophet, or regarding practical instructions—accepted by an authorized halakhic institution, as opposed to matters of thought, where you are supposed to decide for yourself and there are no authority considerations there).
All these are general statements. You’re welcome to speak with me if you want to clarify them in more detail. It’s hard to do everything by email.
All the best and good luck,
Michi
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Questioner:
Yes, I’d be happy to talk to you. Do you have classes one can come to?
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Rabbi:
I have a regular class on Thursday evenings at 8:45 at a synagogue in Petah Tikva. But if you want to talk, set up a meeting with me at the university (Bar-Ilan).
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Questioner:
I’ll come to the class. Is there one this week? Which synagogue is it?
Yes, and I also want to schedule a meeting—what times can you do?
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Rabbi:
The class is on Thursdays at 8:45 PM at Mishkan Yisrael Synagogue, 7 Glitzenstein St., Petah Tikva. If you plan to come regularly, payment should be arranged with Yitzhak.
Of course, for a one-time visit there’s no problem. And of course that also has nothing to do with talking with me, which should be arranged separately. I prefer at the university. Possible times are Wednesdays from 10–12, or Tuesdays at 3. Or Mondays, or evenings at my home in Lod. 052-3320543
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Questioner:

Do the topics of the classes deal with the kind of things that are bothering me?

As for the meeting, when do you think it would be more effective for us to meet—after I read the booklets, so I don’t come completely ignorant? On the other hand, I’m not managing to understand the ontological proof, so maybe it would be better if I heard it from you orally?

And if you have time, and I’m sorry if I’m bothering you;
Is this similar to the proof you present? It just looks like he’s inventing all the parameters:

Stage A: Definitions.

God = absolutely complete being (that is, absolutely perfect).
Clarification: God can be defined in different ways, but I’m allowed to choose any definition I want, since what I choose to define is what I choose to prove the existence of. If you choose to define God differently—fine, prove the existence of something else.

Absolutely complete = having all perfections (all positive properties) and no deficiency whatsoever (any negative property).
Clarification: When we speak of positive and negative properties, we do not mean on a moral or social scale, since that is debatable, etc. Rather, our criterion is: whoever has something has a “positive property,” and whoever lacks that thing has a “negative property.”

The proof:
Among the positive properties, indicate which is positive and which is negative:

Wise – foolish.
Powerful – powerless.
Good – evil.

It is clear that the wise person has wisdom and the fool lacks it, therefore the wise person has the positive property. And the same applies to the others that follow.

And here is another pair:

Existing – non-existing.

Clearly, “existing” is the positive property, as above.

From here it follows that according to the above definition, God is necessarily wise, necessarily powerful, necessarily good—and necessarily existing.

QED.
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Rabbi:

The topics of the classes do not necessarily deal with the kind of things that are bothering you. I deal with various topics. The class has been running for 11 years. This year I spoke about definitions, about right and left, public and individual, and so on.

It’s better to meet after you read. As I wrote, the ontological proof does not convince most people, and I added it mainly for methodological reasons. But various objections to it are discussed in the booklet. If it interests you, try there and then we’ll talk.

In any case, I didn’t understand your argument against the proof. You wrote several logical claims and didn’t say what you wanted to infer from them. Did you mean to say that this way one can prove anything one wants? That is an objection similar to that of the existing island: the assumption that it doesn’t exist leads to a contradiction, and therefore it necessarily exists. That is dealt with in the booklet.

I’ll also note that your clarification is problematic in my opinion. Why do you define wisdom as an entity and foolishness as an absence? Let’s define foolishness as an entity and wisdom as an absence.
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Questioner:
I wanted to ask about the cosmological argument.
You raise this objection, but I didn’t understand the answer.
How can one say there is an infinite higher being? Isn’t that an infinite regress?
You answer there that God is a potential infinity, but if He is potential, then how does He exist?
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Rabbi:
He exists concretely, but His infinity is potential. Meaning, what we can say about Him is only that He is greater than anything we know. That is the meaning of saying He is infinite.
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Questioner:
I don’t understand. If you say He is a potential infinity, then how did you turn Him into something concretely existing?
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Rabbi:
His existence is ordinary existence. I am now discussing His traits/characteristics. Regarding those, it is customary to say that He is infinite. The question is what the meaning of that term is—concrete or potential? Here I said that His infinity is potential. When I say of someone that he has a trait described in potential language, that has no bearing at all on the question of his actual existence. It’s a question about the language used to describe him.
By way of example, Maimonides says that God’s descriptions are made only in negative form (negative attributes). Does that mean He does not exist except in a negative way? He exists, and the language Maimonides uses to describe Him is negating language.
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Questioner:
Okay, I think I understood more or less.
Another question came up for me.
Regarding the “God of the gaps” issue—in the cosmological argument, and maybe also in the physico-theological argument, the claim is based on the idea that whatever was before the singularity point is God (or whatever caused the laws, or caused it to expand), but one day they’ll solve that question too—what preceded the singularity point.
True, right now we can’t really imagine it, and at the moment it seems to us like a question that belongs to philosophy and not science, but in the future science will solve these problems.
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Rabbi:
I explained this both in the booklet and in the book God Plays Dice.
At least in terms familiar to us today, they will never be able to solve it, because when they find what created the Big Bang, I’ll ask who created the thing that created the Big Bang. In the end one arrives at something that always existed, and that is God.
Of course one can say that perhaps they’ll discover something with completely different logic (I can’t even imagine what that could be, and I think nobody today can imagine it), but it sounds ridiculous to me to build anything on that. It’s like someone giving me a good argument for proposition X, and I reject it by saying that true, it’s very convincing, but maybe someday someone will find some refutation of it (even though at present there is no way even to see a direction in which that could be done). By that logic you could throw out all the laws of science or any other conclusion you have, since maybe the inferences that led to them, and even the scientific method underlying them, will be refuted in the future? That isn’t serious. It basically says you can’t use our logic in any field or context because maybe someday it will be shown to be wrong.
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Questioner:
There is a difference between the proof of God and laws of nature like gravity. Because laws of nature can be subjected to empirical testing and attempts at refutation.
Sorry it’s taking me a long time to answer—I’m just looking for things against what you’re claiming.
Again, thanks for the answers 🙂
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Rabbi:
Obviously the claim that God exists is not scientific. I wrote that myself in the booklet. So what?
Let me remind you of the context: there is a good philosophical argument for His existence, and you said that maybe someday science will explain it. I answered that it’s ridiculous to reject a good argument with such a claim, and I didn’t understand what is not agreed upon in that.
By the way, even regarding laws of nature it’s not really clear that they can be subjected to a test of falsification. There is always the possibility of ad hoc arguments, and always the possibility of an alternative theory that also explains all the facts. As is well known, if something has not been refuted, that is not proof of its truth. The existence of God also has not been refuted.
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Questioner:
Rabbi, is your offer to talk still open? Can we set up a meeting?
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Rabbi:
Yes. Arrange it with me by phone: 052-3320543
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Questioner:

Hello Rabbi.

Again, thank you for our meeting yesterday.
I wanted to ask whether you know of a serious atheist philosopher who would be willing to talk with me by email or in person, the way you do?
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Rabbi:
No. Maybe through the websites?
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Questioner:
I’ll try. Is there a particular website you know of, or should I just search?
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Rabbi:
I know there’s a site called “Hofesh.” Not very impressive in my understanding, though I haven’t looked into it deeply.
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Questioner:

Hello Rabbi.

Regarding the claim that one cannot derive binding morality from facts without God.
I saw that Yeshayahu Leibowitz wrote that even with God there is no answer here to binding morality, and that this too is a “decision.”
I wanted to ask what you think.
And if I understood correctly, the reason he says this is because we can also ask about God: “And who says God is right?”
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Rabbi:
Of course there is no possibility of proving moral obligation. My claim is that only faith allows such obligation (but does not force it).
This also has nothing to do with the question of whether He is right, but whether His command is binding. That is the meaning of “decision” in my opinion (an axiom that cannot be grounded in principles prior to it, but not an arbitrary decision). Leibowitz was confused on this issue because of the limitations imposed on him by his positivism (positivists are unable to recognize that there are principles that are true without proof, and therefore they confuse “unproven” with “arbitrary”).
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Questioner:
I didn’t really understand—can you give an example of how morality with God is binding, and how a command without God is not binding?
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Rabbi:
See the fourth booklet, part three.
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Questioner:
Hello Rabbi, every time I talk to you about morality I become convinced that it could be a proof,
then I talk to some nice atheist guy who agreed to help me, and he convinces me that one cannot bring proof from morality.
Then I come back and talk to you, and so on and so forth.
I don’t know whether this is a normal request or an excessive one—I know you are very busy—but the issue is really burning in me.
I wanted to ask: if you have time to meet with me and with him, you can talk to each other and I’ll sit and decide which side I take, or we can do a conference call together on the phone,
whatever is more convenient for you.
That guy agreed (after I pestered him a bit :)) and he thinks very highly of you.
I’d be very happy if the answer is yes, but I’ll understand if it’s no.
Besides that, thank you very much for the answers and the meeting so far—it’s not something I take for granted.
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Rabbi:
You can come to my house in Lod. Coordinate a time with me here or by phone. I’m currently on break with a flexible schedule.
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Questioner:

Hello Rabbi.

Again, thank you for meeting with me and Shay at your home.
I’m speaking with a neuroscientist. I presented to him the psychophysical problem, from which it seems there is a soul. He answered me that true, at present science has no answer for how there is that “mental” thing, but that’s only in the physics we know today. I told him that it doesn’t seem right to me to refute an argument with the counterclaim that “maybe they’ll still find a different answer.” And he answered that if I understood physics better, I’d know that physics changes, just as in physics before Einstein there were different laws than in the physics after him. It’s not the same physics, and therefore there can be, and very likely will be, many more changes.
Besides that, he claimed: “It is a fact (that the ‘mental’ exists) that we are witnesses to, but we have no external way, outside ourselves, to verify it.”
What do you think?
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Rabbi:
One can always claim that physics will yet change and explanations for everything will be found. But to argue from that that there is only matter seems problematic to me. Especially since in today’s physics the problem is not lack of knowledge; there isn’t even a language that can describe the emergence of the mental from the material brain. Physics does indeed change, but on that basis I can also claim that there are fairies, and the fact that physics today doesn’t know how to explain that is only because it hasn’t changed enough yet. That is a pretty weak basis for arguments.

I didn’t understand what it means that we have no external way to verify the mental. Do you have an external way to verify that there is a chair next to you? You know it because in your consciousness there is a picture of the chair. And every verification too is based on something else that will be in your consciousness. In the prologue to the book I explained (as in our conversation) that Descartes’ cogito showed that our trust in the mental precedes our trust in the material, since our knowledge that there is matter is based on the fact that our consciousness recognizes it.
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Questioner:

Thank you very much for the answer.

Two questions:
1. Does the conclusion that we have a soul bring us closer to recognizing that there is a God, beyond the fact that we now understand that not everything in the world is materialistic? For example, maybe one could say that the soul must come to us from somewhere, or something else you’ve thought of?

2. In your booklet “From Deism to Theism” you write that if we accept that God is the one who gives morality its validity, then one can derive from this that morality is not enough, because if the Holy One, blessed be He, created the world for a certain purpose, it cannot be a moral purpose,
“If the purpose of creation were moral improvement, then what’s the point of it?! It would have been better not to create us at all, and then there would have been no need for improvement”… “for the true purpose of created human beings must be found outside them.”
The same could be said about the commandments: what need does God have for us to do them? And if you say it is in order to do us good, then one could also say that if He had not created us, we would not have needed good.

Also from within Judaism I know other things—that the purpose is to cleave to Him, and how does one walk after the Divine Presence? “Just as He is merciful, so you be merciful…”
“He has told you, O man, what is good, and what the Lord requires of you: only to do justice, and to love kindness, and to walk humbly with your God.”
And Maimonides at the end of Guide for the Perplexed, etc.—and I’m sure you know more examples than I do.
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Rabbi:
1. Indeed. Both arguments are correct.
2. The difference is that in morality the goal is to improve ourselves. But we are the ones who were created. The commandments do not improve us (that is my assumption), and therefore they may have a purpose outside the created world. They benefit the Holy One, blessed be He, Himself (in the sense of “Give strength to God” or “the secret of worship: a need on high”).
3. There is a commandment to cleave to Him, but that doesn’t mean that this is our destiny and that this is why we were created. In addition, even if our destiny is to cleave to Him, that is still the goal we are supposed to set before ourselves. But that cleaving can achieve other goals for the sake of which this whole process was created (we ourselves, and setting before us the destiny of cleaving to the Holy One, blessed be He).
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Questioner:
How can one say that the commandments benefit the Holy One, blessed be He?
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Rabbi:
Carefully.
And seriously, this is what is called “the secret of worship: a need on high.” If it doesn’t benefit Him, why did He do it? Rabbi Isaac Luria opens Etz Chaim by saying that the Holy One, blessed be He, wanted to reveal and actualize His names. That too is a kind of benefit for Him.

See the discussion on perfection and self-perfection at the end of my article here:
https://mikyab.net/%d7%9b%d7%aa%d7%91%d7%99%d7%9d/%d7%9e%d7%90%d7%9e%d7%a8%d7%99%d7%9d/%d7%97%d7%99%d7%a6%d7%95-%d7%a9%d7%9c-%d7%96%d7%99%d7%a0%d7%95%d7%9f-%d7%95%d7%94%d7%a4%d7%99%d7%a1%d7%99%d7%a7%d7%94-%d7%94%d7%9e%d7%95%d7%93%d7%a8%d7%a0%d7%99%d7%aa1/It comes out that the Holy One, blessed be He’s ability to perfect Himself depends on us, and therefore He needs us.

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Questioner:
A few questions:
1. Regarding God’s self-perfection, it sounds to me like the statement “it is the nature of the good to do good,” but the question asked about that, and also about your theory, is: why are things that way?

Why is that the nature? And why would the perfect need to perfect itself? If we say it’s simply logical, then was God compelled to create the world?

2. Another question that came up for me while thinking about what you wrote is:

What happened “all of a sudden” that God decided to create the world? Why didn’t it happen before?

3. I also wanted to ask regarding the conversation we had at your house:

What is the reason that murder is forbidden, for example, on the moral level? Is it an axiom? Because God commanded it? Or for rational reasons like “find a law that you would want to become a universal law”?
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Rabbi:

1. There is not and cannot be an answer to the question “why?” with respect to values. A value is a value, that’s just how it is. Every chain of reasoning begins at a point that is supposed to be self-understood; otherwise the chain is infinite and there is no reasoning here. The foundational point in ethics is values. From them the chain of reasoning begins, and therefore the question why a value is binding has no meaning. Someone who doesn’t understand this suffers from a kind of blindness, and it’s like being unable to explain to a blind person what seeing is. The claim that one of the perfections is self-perfection seems self-understood to me. If not to you, then not. And from that, if the Holy One, blessed be He, is perfect, He cannot perfect Himself—but then He is not perfect (because self-perfection is one of the perfections). The only possibility is to say that He perfects Himself through us. And indeed it seems that God was compelled (from His nature, not because of external coercion) to create the world. Just as He is bound by the laws of logic, which is not subjection in the way being subject to laws of nature is.
This is like asking why He must be perfect. Can He become imperfect? The answer is no. His nature compels Him to be perfect and not to change in this regard.

2. He was compelled, and it didn’t happen suddenly. The question why it happened at a certain moment in time is not necessarily well-defined. After all, time itself was created with the Big Bang, and there was no time before that. Therefore it could not have happened “before,” because there was no “before.”
3. See 1. A value is binding by itself. There is no prior reason that grounds it. You can always cast doubt on first principles, but then by definition there is no answer. That is skepticism. Religiously speaking, values are binding both in themselves and because God commanded them. However, in my fourth booklet (and I think also in our conversation) I explained that without God there is no morality.

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Questioner:

I didn’t understand what counts as a value. For example, is not murdering a value? And if an ISIS person tells me that for him the value is yes to murder, and he’ll even tell me that his god told him to do it and thereby give validity to his obligation—do we simply say he’s crazy? And if we go down to lower resolutions, like euthanasia, there too do we tell the other side they’re crazy? How does one determine what is a value?

Is the statement that “one of the perfections is self-perfection” also considered a value?
2. I’m not sure I understand the words “there was no time,” but once I asked you whether the argument that “before the Big Bang there was no time” undermines the cosmological proof, and you answered that in your opinion one can still ask the question what was before. Isn’t this the same case?
3. I understood the argument that “if there is no God, there is no morality.” I’m trying to understand how we can know what morality it is that God commanded.

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Rabbi:

Your question is not how one determines what a value is, but how one persuades someone about it or how one argues about it. That is a completely different question. How does one determine axioms in geometry? One simply looks, thinks, and reaches an intuitive conclusion. Values are determined through moral intuition (answer to 3). When there is disagreement about them—we argue. In my book Truth and Unstable I explained that argument over values takes place within the framework of rhetoric (which is something different from demagoguery, despite the slander against rhetoric) and not logic.

Self-perfection is a value. Regarding time before the Big Bang, that is currently debated, and depends on the question of whether there was something before our universe (other universes). But before the Holy One, blessed be He, created the universe(s), there was nothing, and then certainly there was no time.

Discussion on Answer

P. (2018-02-16)

Hello Rabbi.
After you referred me to your book Truth and Unstable, I read it and things became clearer to me, mainly regarding the concept of “intuition,” which I was surprised to realize I hadn’t understood until now is such a central theory for you. So first of all, thank you very much.
I raised an argument in the conversation we had about morality (although you rejected it in the conversation, it seems to me it ought to arise from the book): that one does not have to assume there is a commanding God (whose words we understand through intuition to be binding) in order to ground valid morality; it is enough to intuitively perceive that morality is binding. We all “see” that.
It seems to me you also wrote this in one of the messages below:
“Religiously speaking, values are binding both in themselves and because God commanded them. However, in my fourth booklet (and I think also in our conversation) I explained that without God there is no morality.”
I’m a bit confused because you wrote “values are binding in themselves,” so why do we need to say “and also because God commanded them”? And in the end you wrote “without God there is no morality.”

Michi (2018-02-16)

The intuitive perception that morality is binding is the starting point. Now you reach the conclusion that in your opinion morality really is binding. But when you think about why, in truth, in your opinion it is binding (since without God there cannot be binding morality), the only answer is that you are implicitly assuming that God commanded it. This is what I called in the fourth booklet a “theological proof” (as distinct from a philosophical one). See there at length for an explanation of this logic.

P. (2018-02-16)

I already understood that because of the naturalistic fallacy, in your view one cannot speak of morality without God. But I don’t understand why that’s necessary. I suggest that just as regarding causality we say it exists because we perceive it intuitively, so too regarding morality we perceive that there is such a thing as “what ought to be,” and that is a primitive, axiomatic thing. I don’t need to ask “why do I think it is binding?”—it just is that way; it needs no further explanation. It’s strange to me that you don’t see it that way, because below you wrote, “a value is a value, that’s just how it is,” exactly like the axioms of geometry.

Michi (2018-02-16)

I already explained exactly this, and I’ll repeat it again.
There is a difference between noticing that there is binding morality and wondering why it truly is binding. Just as I see that there is a force of gravity acting on some body, and that doesn’t exempt me from asking who is applying it. Or I see that there is a world, and I wonder who created it.

P. (2018-02-16)

Another question, if I may.

Lately I’ve been opening up to existentialist philosophy, because many people I talked to claimed that the existence of God is obvious to them. Some of them even had trouble describing the totality of their experiences. I really understood them, mainly because I too experienced that “mystical” thing during my two years in yeshiva. (By mystical I don’t mean some kind of explosive ecstasy, although maybe that too is included in that overall experience.) Maybe the word “experience” is even too weak to describe the way they spoke—they described it as an authentic experience of most human beings (“they spoke less about the Jewish God”).
And anyone who doesn’t have those experiences is like a child captured among non-Jews.
Those descriptions reminded me very much of your parable about the blind man and the sighted one: the person who sees simply sees, and the blind man won’t convince him otherwise because he doesn’t understand.
I also started reading Martin Buber’s I and Thou and Heschel’s God in Search of Man, and I think they describe a different experience there, but one very similar in the direction they arrive at.
I didn’t go into too much detail because I assume you know this approach better than I do.
I saw a few hints from you in the direction of existentialism, but I didn’t understand exactly what your attitude toward them is.
I’d be happy to hear your opinion about these arguments. (Maybe they wouldn’t like calling them arguments.)

Michi (2018-02-16)

Someone who has such an experience can believe without arguments (indeed, that is the parable of the blind man). But there is no philosophical doctrine in that. You feel it—good for you. When people turn this into a philosophical doctrine, it is usually psychology and not philosophy, or the existentialist wrapping covers over an ordinary philosophical doctrine. In my view existentialism is not philosophy (precisely because there are no arguments there, only descriptions).

P. (2018-02-16)

1. In the end, are we all believing in that same experience?

In your language, maybe one could call it intuition.
You wrote a sentence in Truth and Unstable that really woke me up:
“…and therefore, at bottom, belief in God is based on intuition—either one that gives rise to the belief itself, or one that gives rise to assumptions that contain the belief and therefore it can be derived from them using logical tools; this is also the meaning of proofs for belief in God…”
So maybe those descriptions they describe are that same intuition in “perceiving” God?
2. I also wonder whether maybe one does not need a philosophical doctrine, and it is enough to delve into our souls and arrive at those authentic experiences…
Maybe we are denying the authentic experience (which I believe most people experience) by engaging in philosophy.
I’m really confused and would appreciate help… and thank you for always answering my questions, it really matters to me.

Michi (2018-02-16)

In my books I explain this in detail (Truth and Unstable, Two Wagons). Faith is an intuition, and intuition also underlies our axioms in every field.

Looking inward into our souls requires caution. You need to think whether what you find there is the desire to believe or the belief itself. It’s important to distinguish between intuition and emotion.

As stated, there is no obligation to resort to philosophy. If you manage without it—good for you. The person who does need it is the one whose intuition does not directly give him belief, but rather assumptions from which belief can be derived.

In any case, in my best judgment, feelings do not stand on their own. It is desirable to subject them to logical-philosophical criticism. But as I said, there are no rules here.

P. (2018-02-16)

1. I’d be happy if you could give examples from the physico-theological proof and from the cosmological proof of where they assume axioms based on an intuition of faith.

2. Can logical criticism be a “safety tool” for thought; that is, to tell whether what I find within myself is the desire to believe or the belief?

3. If a person like me came to you asking questions about faith, would you try to awaken in him the intuition of faith in God?

Michi (2018-02-16)

1. In every valid argument, the conclusion is hidden in its premises. I spell out this whole matter in the notebooks on the site. In the physico-theological proof, the premise that every complex thing has a creator contains belief within it.
2. I already wrote that yes.
3. Yes. I would try with the various arguments from the notebooks.
We’re repeating ourselves and treading water. All these matters are discussed at length in the notebooks; look there.

P. (2018-02-16)

Hello Rabbi Michael,

I went back to Ma’ale Gilboa Yeshiva, so fortunately I have a lot of time to study the subject we spoke about in the past (God and such wink).

After much thought about your notebooks, I think the psychophysical problem carries great weight.
Regarding the argument from morality, I’m mainly hesitating because of the solution that God validates morality. My main question is whether I accept the axiom that what God commands is necessarily binding, because from what I understood from you, that can only be understood as an axiom… (if you have some time, I’d be happy to continue discussing that)

At the moment, though, what’s occupying me is the cosmological proof and the physico-theological proof, and perhaps also the epistemological proof joins them (although I’m not sure I fully understand the last one, just as the depth of your claim in the proof from morality only became clear to me after I sat with you and with my friend at your house).

The main strength of the arguments, in my eyes, was the fact that the proofs rest on an “essential gap,” unlike the old methods of the “God of the gaps.”
But the cosmological argument can be rejected by saying that before the Big Bang there was no time, and therefore it makes no sense to ask “what was before.”
Even if we say that time did not begin with the Big Bang, still one need not see the gap as an essential gap, but as a gap that can be answered—or like the famous thing people always tell me: “Maybe science will still discover it… just like happened with similar problems in science.”

In the past you told me that scientifically it is still not clear whether there was no time before the Big Bang or whether there were additional universes.
I don’t know whether you meant the theory of parallel universes.
In any case, the very possibility of raising the theory of parallel universes, even if scientifically it still lacks sufficient basis,
I think that shows that the gap is not an essential one, unlike the psychophysical problem, where there isn’t even a language that can begin to raise a solution.

In the end, in all the proofs, God appears as a “joker.” If the gap is essential, as I said, I’m willing to accept that God; but if not, I’m not sure how intellectually honest it would be to accept those arguments, which now sound to me scientific and not philosophical.

Thank you for all the cooperation, which I definitely do not take for granted.

Michi (2018-02-16)

Hello P.,
First, the various arguments join together. The separation between them is mainly didactic. Even if the cosmological argument gets stuck, one still needs an explanation for how the laws and complexity of the world came to be (the physico-theological argument).
Second, even if there was no time before the Big Bang, there is still room to ask what the cause/reason was of what came into being (especially the complexity and design. See the discussion of the principle of sufficient reason versus the principle of causality). This is basically like the solution of an eternal world.
Parallel universes and time stretching backward are problematic solutions because of infinite regress.

And beyond that, even if there was no time before, the question of causality still stands. The dependence of causality on time is only in a situation where there is time. When there is no time, one has to speak of causality without time. The claim that causality too was not there is problematic, since it stands against the principle of causality. Fine, regarding time science has shown there was no time—but regarding causality there is no reason (!) to assume that.

P. (2018-02-16)

It seems to me that the principle of sufficient reason (an improved version of the cosmological argument) really does pass the test of the “essential gap.”

But the physico-theological argument—how is it an “essential gap”?
I didn’t understand why parallel universes are an infinite regress. When I say parallel universes, I mean a large number of universes, with each universe having different laws—not a universe that existed before ours.
And again, I’m not insisting on the validity of the theory of parallel universes itself, only on the fact that the existence of another possibility besides God makes me suspect that this is not an essential gap that science will be unable to solve.

Michi (2018-02-16)

As I recall, I explained this. First, nobody knows of a mechanism for creating universes or systems of laws, even if they are random and not complex. There is still a mechanism in the background, and that immediately raises again the question of who created it itself. So here too there is a dependence on an earlier stage, which also has to be pushed further back. Beyond that, the hypothesis that there are infinitely many universes that nobody has seen is completely baseless. By that logic, any low-probability outcome will be explained by the existence of a demon nobody has seen, who made sure that this result occurred. In the national lottery, the die landed on 6 a thousand times in a row—apparently there was a demon who took care of that, or infinitely many other rolls that nobody saw. Therefore it’s impossible to investigate the accused person who “handled” the die.
And even if all this is true, there is still no scientific explanation here, because every explanation would require the mechanism I described above, and that would again require an explanation. So in the final analysis, no science will offer a complete explanation. That is an essential gap.

P. (2018-02-21)

Hello Rabbi Michi,
Until now I enjoyed the fact that we had a long thread. But unfortunately it got too long and was simply deleted for me.
I’ll just remind you that I was with my friend at your house and we talked about the proof from morality and about body and soul. And my main question is about God.

During my learning, a few more questions were added, mainly about intuition and foundational assumptions in your method:

1. Regarding the proof from morality: from what I understood, you say that our very obligation to morality, like the values themselves, is something we perceive with the “eyes of the intellect” / intuition.
Then you come and ask why there is this obligation, which is a kind of fact… what is the factor by virtue of which there is obligation in the world? And you answer that the only possible option that can validate binding morality is the assumption of God. Up to this point, I hope I understood the proof.
My question is: do we also ask ourselves about ordinary intuitions and foundational assumptions, such as the existence of causality—why is there causality between things? What is the factor by virtue of which there is causality between things in the world?
If the answer is no, then why ask that about obligation? (One could say that we are simply obligated and that this is a primitive fact—“the Tao,” as in the book The Abolition of Man that you often quote.)

2. I’d be glad if you could expand my knowledge regarding the foundational assumptions of science. Are there foundational assumptions beyond causality (induction and analogy that derive from it), the fact that we exist, and that we can understand the world?

And the most important question:
3. One of my biggest dilemmas is whether to trust existentialist and phenomenological philosophy.
To tell the truth, I started to trust them as a result of your approach, and then I discovered that you reject those philosophies altogether.
I’d be happy if you’d correct me…
Experiences and dialogue with something spiritual in life are like the love of a woman or like morality—it is something we “perceive with the eyes of the intellect.” A “spiritual fact,” like what you call a “normative fact.”
If you tell a person that what he’s talking about is just nonsense, then true, he won’t be able to convince you (probably he’ll be able to persuade you through rhetoric), but for him it is true, and you are simply blind to his intuition.
Sometimes I also think that those experiences are themselves the foundational assumptions of the proofs you bring in the notebooks:
A feeling of “createdness,” “awe/dread”—from the cosmological proof.
Experiences of infinity, “the image of God within me”—from the proof of the soul (body and soul), etc.

I read a lot of partial arguments and mutual accusations on the subject, but not an orderly discussion. Rabbi Menachem Navot writes about it seriously, but it’s hard for me that there is no orderly discussion and no response from your side beyond saying that it is just a description of a person’s subjectivity.
Waiting eagerly for your answers, which always leave me wanting more—to keep searching and investigating.

With much appreciation,

Michi (2018-02-21)

Hello P.,

1. Indeed. In the fourth booklet I broaden the discussion regarding theological proofs. One can base such a proof on many things. The fact that there is a fact is not an answer to anything. The question is why there is this fact or that fact.

2. It’s hard for me to list the foundational assumptions of science. That is a subject for research.

3. Here too, in order to write something orderly, one would need to devote time and systematic research. Briefly I’ll say that existentialist philosophy is not defined only by the method, but also by its subjects of inquiry. Even if the existentialist “sees” his insights, that is something he shares with every other philosopher (especially according to my synthetic approach). Therefore that cannot be a definition of existentialism. The existentialist carves out insights about himself and sees them as philosophy. Usually this is more psychology than philosophy. Beyond that, existentialism does not justify and does not deal in arguments, but in claims. In that sense, there is no philosophy here.

P. (2018-02-21)

Thank you very much for the answer!

For some reason the message was automatically sent to my “spam,” so it took me a long time to reply.

1. In my question I was trying to say that one cannot ask about axioms. Just as there is no point in asking “why is there causality?”—the answer is simply that that’s how it is. There is no explanation why…
So too regarding the question “why am I obligated?”—it has no answer, or its answer is: you are obligated because you are obligated; just as there is causality because there is causality.

In that same context, it is hard for me to understand how, when we reach morality—even though we are dealing with axioms—we can say that it is possible to convince someone of the correctness of our axiom by rhetoric. After all, when I say there is causality and another person says there is no causality, or he says “I do not exist,” what rhetoric would help convince him that our axiom is correct? By the way, the same goes for saying that God’s command is binding. It has no explanation whatsoever. If a person does not “see” it, how will you convince him?

Another thing: I don’t know how excessive this is to ask, but it is very hard for me to express myself in writing, and the last time I came to you with my friend—the atheist doing a PhD in philosophy—the concepts became much clearer to me.
I wanted to ask whether it’s possible that we meet once more to talk about the notebooks and your general method regarding intuition.
In another month I’m going back to the army for officers’ course.
Do you think that would be possible?

Michi (2018-02-21)

Hello.
You can ask how a person adopts foundational assumptions in the first place at all. I explained in my books Truth and Unstable and Two Wagons that this is a kind of seeing (not with the eyes, of course). That is, it is a process of cognition and not of thinking. In the same way, rhetoric can cause your interlocutor to see something he didn’t see before. That is how persuasion happens. That is how one can cause a person to become moral, to believe in God, or to understand that there is causality, and so on.
You can coordinate a time for a meeting with me by phone.

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