Q&A: Two Verses That Come as One
Two Verses That Come as One
Question
It is commonly explained that the reasoning of the view that two verses that come as one do not teach is that one may not derive a general rule by analogy, since the Torah specified these two particular cases. I wanted to ask: according to this, what is the reasoning of the view that two verses that come as one do teach? How does it answer the claim of the view that they do not teach?
Answer
Reish Lakish already said that the Torah speaks in human language. Sometimes the Torah uses seemingly extra wording for rhetorical beauty and style, and therefore one should not infer something from every extra expression and every embellishment.
In addition, there are situations in which one can include other cases, but within a narrower scope because of that same consideration. That is, the Torah specified two cases in order to teach us not to include everything, but rather to make a limited inclusion. This is somewhat like the inclusions derived from the rule of general statement, particular statement, and general statement, where one includes only within a partial range (see the second book in the Talmudic Logic series).
Dear N., could you give an example of the second case you mentioned?